Submitted by AutoModerator t3_110j0cp in MachineLearning
trnka t1_j8hcpwt wrote
I've been learning more about multilingual neural machine translation models lately such as the one in Google's recent paper:
Bapna, A., Caswell, I., Kreutzer, J., Firat, O., van Esch, D., Siddhant, A., Niu, M., Baljekar, P., Garcia, X., Macherey, W., Breiner, T., Axelrod, V., Riesa, J., Cao, Y., Chen, M. X., Macherey, K., Krikun, M., Wang, P., Gutkin, A., … Hughes, M. (2022). BUILDING MACHINE TRANSLATION SYSTEMS FOR THE NEXT THOUSAND LANGUAGES
I'm not sure I understand why it works for languages with no parallel data with any language though.... for instance Latinized Hindi doesn't have any parallel data. Why would the encoder or decoder representations of Latinized Hindi be compatible with any other language?
Is it because byte-pair encoding is done across languages, and that Latinized Hindi will have some word overlap with languages that DO have parallel data? So then it's encouraging the learning algorithm to represent those languages in the same latent space?
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