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NorwegianSteam t1_itfbjcf wrote

> If the prior owner ALLOWED him use the land to plant the trees, the criteria for AP is not met

But an easement may have been established, in which case they still might not be able to do anything to that part of the land.

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Grand_Profession_207 t1_itfuo5o wrote

It’s unlikely, not impossible but unlikely there’s an easement that didn’t come up during the purchase of the home as it would/should have been incorporated to the zoning maps

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