Submitted by meellowstar t3_10u9kid in askscience
I'm sitting on my thesis for my history class for uni and analyzing some old local policies from 1718 (from a city government in Palatinate, germany) , which told the citizens to bring a light source with them if they wanted to go outside after a specific point in time in the evening. I was a little bit confused about the determined point of time, being 10pm in summer and 8pm in winter. I thought, why would they set the time that late in winter? Where I live in December at 5pm it's already dark outside. Why force the people to carry a lightsource not until 8pm? Why not already at 5pm when it's already dark especially without having electrical light at that time. That applies to the summer time as well? Why having to bring a lit lantern at 10pm when there is still enough daylight so you wouldn't need a lantern. At least from todays perspective. And on top of that it's even more confusing if you take in account that we have winter and summer time. In the past winter time would be the normal time (UTC+1). Hence my question: How consistent is the yearly cycle of varying daylight duration from day to day throughout the year in a historical view? Was it the same in 16th century as today? Did it change throughout the millenia? And if so, how much did it change?
[deleted] t1_j7azqe0 wrote
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