Submitted by DisgruntledBrDev t3_10ybfaw in askscience
I'm reading "the origin of species", and in ch. 4, under "convergence of character", Darwin, arguing that a same species would be very unlikely to arise from two different lineages, says, and i quote "if this had occurred, we should meet with the same form, independent of genetic connection".
But a quick Google search says that Mendel only published his works on inheritance in 1966, 7 years after Darwin's book was published, and DNA was only discovered in 1869. I find it very unlikely that he'd be able to use the term "genetic" in the same sense as us.
So what the hell did Darwin mean by "genetic connection"?!
urzu_seven t1_j7yb2oq wrote
The word genetic was coined in the early 1800's (circa 1830) by Scottish philosopher and historian Thomas Carlyle and head that meaning of "pertaining to origins". Darwin used it similarly to refer to biological origins. Although the exact mechanisms and details were not discovered until later, the idea that plants and animals pass on traits has long been known, its what farming and animal husbandry have been based on for millennia. Darwin was simply expanding on that idea to apply to more substantial change over a greater time period. The invention of the word gene and its connection to genetics came later, by almost a century (circa 1910), with the word genetic already having been in use.