Submitted by SouthFar412 t3_11tjzn0 in askscience
I believe menopause is triggered when a woman's body has no more eggs to release. So my question is if a woman took the pill continually such that she doesn't have a period would that cause her also not to release eggs and in doing so cause her eggs to last longer and thus menopause to be delayed by the number of years she was continually on the pill.
If so could a woman perhaps do so for 10 to 15 years resulting in menopause occurring in her 60 to mid 60s rather than 50s when she is still working.
[deleted] t1_jckvlsy wrote
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