Submitted by eagle_565 t3_127lrli in askscience
The way I understand the causes for the Flynn effect are as follows:
- Malnutrition and illness can stunt the IQ of a growing child. These have been on the decline in most of the world for the last century.
- Education raises IQ. Public education is more ubiquitous than ever, hence the higher IQs today.
- Reduction in use of harmful substances such as lead pipes.
Has this effect petered out in the developed world, or is it still going strong? Is it really an increase in everyone's IQ's or are there just less malnourished, illiterate people in the world (in other words are the rich today smarter than the rich of yesterday)?