When it's said 99.9% of human DNA is the same in all humans, is this referring to only coding DNA or both coding and non-coding DNA combined? Submitted by PeanutSalsa t3_y4t646 on October 15, 2022 at 5:08 PM in askscience 150 comments 2,910
Yusnaan t1_isgqqta wrote on October 15, 2022 at 9:27 PM Also don't forget that the epigenome (methylation, acetylation, histone modification, etc.) can make nearly identical DNA act very differently. This has been observed in identical twins, and is still being heavily explored. Permalink 38 [deleted] t1_isi33ml wrote on October 16, 2022 at 3:45 AM [removed] Permalink Parent 1 [deleted] t1_isi531e wrote on October 16, 2022 at 4:03 AM [removed] Permalink Parent 1
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