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obnoxiousbutquiet t1_j292t6w wrote

Reply to comment by Verlepte in Before Newton, how did people explain falling apples? by maugustus

While I do see the philosophical distinction, this is still very Newtonian to me. Very interesting.

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Verlepte t1_j2az2se wrote

It's fundamentally very different. In Newtonian physics there's an attractive force that causes for instance a rock to fall down to the earth. In Aristotelian physics there's no attractive force, but the rock strives towards the earth and therefore falls down towards it.

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