Submitted by AutoModerator t3_10l0kx9 in askscience
need_some_answer t1_j5vyj10 wrote
Reply to comment by Thaser in Ask Anything Wednesday - Economics, Political Science, Linguistics, Anthropology by AutoModerator
One reason is simply that languages change over time, especially with relation to its culture. Meaning as a groups culture changes so does their language. In general languages having a notable change takes a few hundred years so it is a slow process.
So even if you want to assume there was a “first” language (which I don’t think is correct), over the thousands of years of human migration, our cultures have changed very drastically from one another and so do our languages.
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