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zedoktar t1_j6byftv wrote

Reply to comment by angelojann in Dickens' David Copperfield: Were men more affectionate with each other in the 18th century? by angelojann

Also, it wasn't condemned at all in a lot of cultures prior to Christianity. For example the ancient Celts were so pansexual (and polyamourous) that even the Greeks and Romans were like "woah dial it back a notch."

Most of the negative attitudes towards it around the world can be traced back to Christian colonization.

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angelojann OP t1_j6byrh1 wrote

I wonder how would our society work if the didn't happen. what if Christianity didn't demonize same sex love..

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jaegan438 t1_j6cj3up wrote

Christianity straight up demonizes sex period. same, different, whatever. Paul was repressed, and took it out on everybody else.

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Gordon_Gano t1_j6d8wc4 wrote

Oh my god please recommend further reading on this topic

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Mkwdr t1_j6ccvzu wrote

I thought it was at least looked down upon in (edit- pre-Christian) Roman society depending on your role in the relationship. In as much as being seen acting as a woman or subservient was a bad thing , being seen as the ‘dominant’ participant not so much!

Edit: I wonder why the downvote for what as far as I know is entirely factual.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Homosexuality_in_ancient_Rome

Also I think one has to be careful about perhaps using modern concepts of pansexuality/polyamory on ancient cultures especially when it’s based on another culture’s views ( propaganda?) about them and the Romans weren’t exactly unbiased or always worried about being too accurate when writing about other groups. From what I can see ( being no expert) Roman writers seem to have described Celtic women being shared by lots of men , being able to choose their men , and yet also the Celtic men preferring other me? But how reliable those comments are and whether it corresponds precisely to our idea of ‘pansexuality’ etc can we really say?

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