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ConceptualEconomist t1_is1w8pp wrote

Agreed with Reagan era introducing tax laws/regs that helped the rich, but the whole “US didn’t ‘lose economic equality’ as much as it “gained economic inequality’” literally mean the same thing. Becoming less equitable is the same as becoming more inequitable. There’s no possible way by definition for something to become less equitable and less inequitable simultaneously.

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sfasdf2141 t1_is2jlll wrote

It's a pretty important distinction actually. It's not the same thing. One involves people getting poorer, the other involves them getting wealthier. It's not zero sum.

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ConceptualEconomist t1_is2kux5 wrote

Don’t conflate equality with specific classes. Equality is relative to all classes, not one. “Gaining inequality” could mean the wealthy becoming wealthier, the poorer becoming poorer, or a mix of the two. You are assigning inequality solely to the working class, which is stupid because the “inequality” part is the working class relative to the wealthy. What about if the working class became even more better off than the poor? Would you say the working class “gained equality”? No, you’d say “it is less equitable”.

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sfasdf2141 t1_is2mh1b wrote

Mate, I'm speaking about the real world consequences of the inequality. I'm not conflating it with any specific class.

Middle class people being pushed into poverty, versus wealthy people tripling their salaries, both increase inequality. One is a massive problem, the other, not nearly as much.

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ConceptualEconomist t1_is2n7f1 wrote

You are conflating it with a specific class. You’re practically admitting to it by saying “Middle class people being pushed into poverty, versus wealthy people tripling their salaries, both increase inequality. One is a massive problem, the other, not nearly as much.” You even said both increase inequality! So how is that different from decreasing equality? It isn’t different.

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sfasdf2141 t1_is2o6v5 wrote

I'm not saying it's different in regards to increasing/decreasing equality. You're literally arguing with yourself only. I'm worried for your reading comprehension.

It's different in REAL WORLD APPLICATION. In one scenario, Americans on average are becoming poorer. In the other, they are getting wealthier. Done. Not the same. Easy concept. Get it?

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ConceptualEconomist t1_is2p6dz wrote

My reading comprehension? Did you see the original point I was trying to make about the original commenter’s “the US didn’t ‘lose economic equality’ as much as it ‘gained inequality’”? The point I was trying to make is they are the same and you’re going off about “ReAL WorLD APPliCaTIoN”. You’re two scenarios of Americans either becoming poorer or wealthier is independent of “gaining inequality” and “losing equality” being the same thing. In your first scenario (Americans becoming poorer - had to point this out because your reading comprehension is probably lower than that of the average second grader), they gained inequality/losses equality. In your second scenario (Americans gaining wealth), they gained equality/lost inequality.

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sfasdf2141 t1_is2qz9h wrote

It's clear the point he was trying to make and you got sucked into a word-debate rather than focus on the topic at hand. You're focussing on such trivial wording and missing the point entirely.

Thanks for helping my writing out. "Losses equality" isn't correct in your comment if you want to be pedantic. Seems your comprehension is also below a second grader.

But no, in both examples, they GAINED inequality. They are less equal. But one is a problem, one isn't. I'm amazed you're struggling this hard with a simple concept.

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ConceptualEconomist t1_is2rwvg wrote

Lmao, it’s not pedantic. Additionally, you pick up on an extra ‘s’ and try to make fun of my mistake, and you also say “Thanks for helping my writing out”. Pick up a book, go back to school, go outside and touch some grass, maybe talk to another person that you can physically see! Just something other than staying on Reddit, please.

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