Mikiemax80 OP t1_jaf4g9l wrote
Reply to comment by its-a-throw-away_ in ELI5: In math - when we say the probability of something occurring over “infinite” time is 1, does that not completely ignore intervening events that cause the probability to be 0. by Mikiemax80
Thank you for your reply. That makes sense - it being a bounded set vs an infinite set.
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