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Mikiemax80 OP t1_jaf4nbw wrote

Reply to comment by khalamar in ELI5: In math - when we say the probability of something occurring over “infinite” time is 1, does that not completely ignore intervening events that cause the probability to be 0. by Mikiemax80

Ok, thanks for your reply. I understand how you explained it and it’s very similar to the previous poster’s comparison of a bounded vs infinite set.

Also I definitely don’t want to live forever cos I don’t want to be hit by a train 😂

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