Submitted by icanseeyourpantsuu t3_z2bw3p in headphones
StaticSpace0 t1_ixgh4lr wrote
Reply to comment by SupOrSalad in 100Ω output impedance by icanseeyourpantsuu
is there anywhere where i can read up on why that ratio is 8:1? why is it specifically 8:1?
SupOrSalad t1_ixghno9 wrote
8:1 is just the common middle ground that has been accepted, but oratory goes into it a little more in section 3 of this post https://www.reddit.com/r/oratory1990/comments/ugofb0/why_can_measurements_from_different_sources/
Tl;dr while 8 times is the generaly accepted ratio, there's no reason its specifically that, as even an 8:1 ratio can cause a 1dB difference in the frequency response of the headphones due to the damping factor. so a higher ratio can still be more desired for less of a change in FR
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