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SoNic67 t1_j5tfqxd wrote

Limit the mathematical model only to a couple of terms of the series, and see how "lossless" your transformation is.

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TaliskerBay22 t1_j5tvung wrote

I do not understand, your comment can you explain? Only thing I am saying is that the impulse response of the headphone in this graph is known to infinity as the assumption that it will continue to be 0 after the end of the plotted data is certainly a valid one. So we can pad with 0s this graph as much as we want. On the other hand the time 0 in this impulse wrong seems to be arbitrary. If somebody can pass me the data of the graph I can certainly do an FFT and get the Freq response.

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SoNic67 t1_j5uqz7w wrote

I am talking about people that say the FFT is equal to impulse response because... math.

FFT implies infinite bandwidth.

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