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Alarmed_Orchid_2744 t1_jdyw84q wrote

When Japan invaded the Philippines, The Philippines was a US Colony, with its own commonwealth government. Upon Japanese Occupation however, the Commonwealth Government of the Philippines still operates albeit in exile on US shores. Afterwards, the US and the allied forces helped take back the Philippines from Japan, occupying it for another year before granting full independence to the country for good. So would it be correct to assume that the Philippines was under both the Japanese and America at the same time?? (even if the Americans weren't actively governing the Philippines during the Japanese occupation)

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en43rs t1_jdzso5b wrote

>was under both the Japanese and America at the same time??

Kinda? Although that's semantic, because that can be said for all occupied territory (by that logic Poland was under both German and Polish government in exile control).

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quantdave t1_jdzsvcj wrote

A government in exile doesn't really count as control, though, so I'd say from 1942 to 1944/45 the islands were "under" Japan, the US and the Commonwealth government retaining their claim but not yet able to enforce it. For a few months during the Japanese invasion and the subsequent US recapture, parts were Japanese-controlled and parts US-controlled, but in between the US was out of the picture in terms of de facto possession.

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