Submitted by AutoModerator t3_zu9d4g in history
LateInTheAfternoon t1_j1iaiv6 wrote
Reply to comment by anarchysquid in Simple/Short/Silly History Questions Saturday! by AutoModerator
>Both areas are generally mountainous
No, they're not. A lot of lowlands, plains and broad valleys and many cities were built by the coasts (especially far away from any mountains in the case of Peru).
anarchysquid t1_j1idu9e wrote
So here is a map of the valley of Mexico, before Lake Texcoco was drained. As you can see, there are flat areas, especially along the lakeshore, but the valley is lined with hills and there are even hills between major population centers. This isn't to say there are no flat areas, but elevation is a major concern for any significant travel distance.
Here is a map of the Incan Empire. Notice the terrain between major population centers like Cuzco and La Paz or Lima? Again, there are places where a wheeled cart would have helped, but overall the land is quite mountainous.
LateInTheAfternoon t1_j1iftaz wrote
I urge you to look on the rest of the maps while you're at it. Take a gander were most pre-Incan cities were located as well. You'll soon find why "generally" was a poorly chosen word which no cherrypicked examples will change.
anarchysquid t1_j1ig4hu wrote
what's your alternative theory?
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