Viewing a single comment thread. View all comments

Wide-Concert-7820 t1_j6j78hw wrote

I disagree. When considering Pittsburgh, or Boston for that matter, the metro area is considered due to a 7:1 ratio with their small land areas. We have 3 pro teams....do you think they consider 300k in the city or the 2.4 metro when considering what is or isnt Pittsburgh?

4

SHC715 t1_j6nrov6 wrote

It seems from what I've heard that both Pittsburgh and Boston have some very urban inner ring suburbs. This isn't true for a lot of cities.

Even for Chicago, I'd say only Berwyn, Cicero, Evanston, and maybe Blue Island are really urban in the inner ring. Suppose there's a lot of really sketchy burbs in the inner ring that might qualify as well.

2

Wide-Concert-7820 t1_j6nwbev wrote

They developed quite differently. Boston, of course, was right on the shore and developed at a time that the distancea were significantly magnified as the horse was the only means of transportation. Common roads like Mass ave were continued outwards and places like Arlington sprung up. This lent itself to mass transit easily when technolgy caught up.

Greater Pittsburgh developed as mill towns. When Carnegie needed another mill, he looked for the next flat area near the rivers, took a steam ship to the European country struggling the most, and brought 5k or so people over. Built the mill, connected to the railroad, and built a town for them usually in their native language with English subtitles on signs. There was no interest in being connected to anything other than the mill, river, and railroad. They are suburbs now. They were fully independent towns (albeit company towns) then.

Not sure what this has to do with weather. But it does explain the ratio of suburbs to city.

2

TheAbyssAlsoGazes t1_j6jwaqq wrote

>due to a 7:1 ratio with their small land areas

What do you mean? A ratio of what to what?

1

[deleted] t1_j6jrvt4 wrote

Wow good answer and not some woke shitesz

0