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That's hereditary, right.?

I know, if I suffered, I wouldn't procreate, but that's Just my opinion.

Does violence cause schizophrenia, or are schizophrenics targets of violence?

https://www.who.int/news/item/09-03-2021-devastatingly-pervasive-1-in-3-women-globally-experience-violence

Violence against women remains devastatingly pervasive and
starts alarmingly young, shows new data from WHO and partners. Across
their lifetime, 1 in 3 women, around 736 million, are subjected to
physical or sexual violence by an intimate partner or sexual violence
from a non-partner – a number that has remained largely unchanged over
the past decade.

Can't both be true?

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According to the CDC, 1 in 5 women will experience rape in their lifetime, and 1 in 4 women will experience “severe physical violence” from an intimate partner. (source

I’m confused about the numbers then because it’s pretty well established that people with schizophrenia are more likely to be victims of violence, but the 20.7% rate cited here is lower than the general (female) population.

In some cases it appears to run in families, but to my knowledge the causes for schizophrenia are varied and many of them are not well understood. So not every case of schizophrenia is hereditary.

This doesn't really surprise me. Women with mental, emotional and behavioral challenges are overall very vulnerable to sexual and physical abuse. This is not only because it is often easy to take advantage of them and get away with it (they are often dismissed as 'crazy', or find it difficult to articulate what has happened to them) but because their erratic behavior can be difficult to deal with, and might be more likely to trigger violence against them from others who are easy angered or frustrated and express that in bad ways.

And still, much lower than the rates and frequency of violence against men

Men who suffer from schizophrenia also experience violence on a much higher level.

In the article, it also references that the 20.7% rate of lifetime violence is 9 times higher versus a population without serious mental illness (~ 2.3%) (Reference link).

I reckon the difference between this and CDC's figures will be in the methodology. CDC using a US Population and telephone/mobile phone survey, and Khalifeh et al using a systematic review of english published journal articles.

Based on this and without completing critiquing the sources of data for the systematic review, it could be that the US has a higher rate of violence vs other parts of the world? Or the data methodologies differ that has led to this difference?

Schizophrenics could have reliably awful taste in partners

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People struggling with mental health and no safe support network can struggle to identify clear red flags or blatant abuse. A lot of people experiencing this will end up in, return to, or hop from one abusive situation to another because of this. The trauma experienced can make it even more challenging to see or manage.

It's also possible that they do see the flags and abuse, but feel that despite the poor treatment it's better than whatever alternative they may have to suffer otherwise. Financial dependence or other society-navigating dependance also leads to this. Need medication to manage but you can't cover it alone or depend on your partners benefits? This can also be true for people with poor physical health who get trapped for similar reasons.

Who's doing the violence?

What % of them themselves conduct violent or sexual behaviours ?

Often, other men, but domestic violence, against men, by women, is grossly underreported. Also, women attacking men is usually not only tolerated, but applauded, even when the violence is completely unjustified.