JannickL

JannickL OP t1_ix5abu2 wrote

May I ask in the case of Hemophilia A, why isnt the recessive gene getting expressed alongside of the dominant? If the dominant is outperforming the recessive why does the recessive gene have zero impact instead of a lesser one. In the case of eye colour I can understand that higher melanin -> darker eye colour, so even if you have blue and brown genes you end up with brown eyes just maybe little bit lighter due to there only being one brown eyes gene. Is it the same with Hemophilia A or is there another reason why the recessive gene has no impact? Is it because one gene alone can encode for enough proteins so that overproduction in the case of the gene being there two times gets mitigated by some other factor?

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