bigfor4

bigfor4 t1_iwrcmpj wrote

You assume a thorough or good-faith reading of the material when it hasn’t been demonstrated at all. You know that when you adjusted for differences in spelling court testimony form 400 years ago is just modern English? The KJV and Shakespeare leave a false impression on readers, they intentionally used already archaic language to give an impression to readers and listeners that they they were taking in something high brow. They effectively were using archaic English to model the difference between say contemporary Latin and classic Latin.

I really don’t think English or German has changed so much in the past 80 years that the excuse for the researchers is they couldn’t parse it’s actual meaning.

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