drafterman
drafterman t1_j6o1w8u wrote
Reply to ELI5: Who buys the stock I sell? by Raven019
It isn't the case that someone is always willing to buy at the same time someone wants to sell. What happens is if you want to sell your stock you can either find someone willing to buy it or you put out a sell order that basically is a notice saying "I'm willing to sell Y stocks for X amount of dollars." In which case you sit around and wait till someone is willing to fulfill that order.
On the flip side someone wanting to buy one can either grab one for those immediately willing to be sold or put in a buy order for a certain price.
So when you sell you're either fulfilling one of those buy orders or your putting in a sell order yourself and waiting for someone to buy it.
drafterman t1_j6g1gyu wrote
Reply to comment by Wild_Top1515 in ELI5: What is the difference between fatalism and nihilism? by bluejester12
No. Fatalism makes no statement about purpose or intent. You can be fatalistic and think there is no point or fatalistic and think there is a point. And neither has anything inherently to do with death.
drafterman t1_j6ezwf6 wrote
Fatalism is the believe that anything that happens is predetermined and inevitable.
Nihilism is the believe that nothing has inherent meaning or purpose.
drafterman t1_j6ehvu2 wrote
Reply to eli5: why dies the pythagorean identity work always if it is made with unit circle in mind? by [deleted]
Because sin and cos are about ratios, not pure side lengths. For example, 2/1, 4/2, 6/3 are all equal to 2 even though we are dealing with different numbers.
Sin is the same as opposite/hypotenuse and cos is the same as adjacent/hypotenuse.
So the equation is basically:
(opposite/hypotenuse)^(2) + (adjacent/hypotenuse)^(2) = 1
Even if the sides are different, the constraints of a right angled triangle (which is what it is based on, not the unit circle) make all the other sides change such that it still equals 1. Rearranging the equation we get:
opposite^(2)/hypotenuse^(2) + adjacent^(2)/hypotenuse^(2) = 1
opposite^(2) + adjacent^(2) = hypotenuse^(2)
Which is simply the pythagorean theorem.
drafterman t1_j6d5301 wrote
There is only a finite amount of energy in fuel to be extracted to begin with. That places an upper limit on what your MPG can even be. So it can't simply go up forever without limit. And Whatever that limit is, there are diminishing returns meaning you get less and less an improvement over time.
drafterman t1_j2fob02 wrote
Reply to comment by corveroth in ELI5 why do people refer to it as the pacific northwest rather than simply the northwest? by Longshot_Louie
Ok, and?
drafterman t1_j2flgrh wrote
Reply to ELI5: How is QUANTUM superposition mathematically/ontologically possible? Physics ELI5: How is superposition mathematically/ontologically possible? Physics by Forward-Razzmatazz18
It's possible because it isn't impossible. There is no rule in physics or math that says it is impossible, which means it's possible.
And what it is, is basically saying that some subatomic particles can exist in different states at once.
For example, electrons have a property known as spin. Since they have spin they have direction (kind of like how the Earth spins and because of that, has a north and south pole). Since electrons have a direction, an electron can be "up" or "down."
Superposition says its possible for an electron to be put into a state where it is both up and down at the same time, and will only definitely be one (and not the other) when it interacts with another particle.
drafterman t1_j2f5qyk wrote
Reply to comment by corveroth in ELI5 why do people refer to it as the pacific northwest rather than simply the northwest? by Longshot_Louie
Said act says:
"that portion of said District included within the present limits of the city of Washington shall continue to be known as the city of Washington"
drafterman t1_j2e95kp wrote
Reply to comment by geek_fire in ELI5 why do people refer to it as the pacific northwest rather than simply the northwest? by Longshot_Louie
Washington is a city inside the District of Columbia.
That's why it's "Washington, DC", not "Washington DC"
drafterman t1_j2djjd8 wrote
Reply to comment by mytrickytrick in ELI5 why do people refer to it as the pacific northwest rather than simply the northwest? by Longshot_Louie
Because town names are usually a local consideration, whereas a large geographical chunk of an entire nation is a national consideration.
I mean, you would agree that we wouldn't ever give two states the same name, right?
drafterman t1_j2dhxon wrote
Reply to ELI5: Angles in a semicircle by [deleted]
Well, the reason and logic behind it are in the proofs for it, of which there are several. I like this one:
Since OA = OB = OC, ∆OBA and ∆OBC are isosceles triangles, and by the equality of the base angles of an isosceles triangle, ∠OBC = ∠OCB and ∠OBA = ∠OAB.
Let α = ∠BAO and β = ∠OBC. The three internal angles of the ∆ABC triangle are α, (α + β), and β. Since the sum of the angles of a triangle is equal to 180°, we have:
a + (a + B) + B = 180
2a + 2B = 180
2(a + B) = 180
a + B = 90
drafterman t1_j2dhgag wrote
Reply to ELI5 why do people refer to it as the pacific northwest rather than simply the northwest? by Longshot_Louie
Because simply "Northwest" was already in use, historically, to refer to the Northwest Territory of the USA or, even today, the Northwest Territories of Canada.
drafterman t1_j2bqct1 wrote
Reply to comment by Big_carrot_69 in Eli5: I don't remember who, but a scientist or skeptic said that if we ever figured out how the universe works, it would destroy and recreate itself. Why would that be though? by Big_carrot_69
Ok, but in terms of your question, it is a concept from a science fiction comedy author, not an actual scientific concept anyone expects to happen.
drafterman t1_j1u916x wrote
drafterman t1_j1j0wx2 wrote
Reply to ELI5 What is the underlying principle that lets the creators of ChatGPT (for example) feel confident that it will accurately provide answers to questions they themselves haven’t pondered? by onlyouwillgethis
There is no confidence that ChatGPT will provide accurate answers. That isn't even the goal of ChatGPT.
ChatGPT is essentially a language prediction model. You provide a prompt. Then, using all of its immense database of collected text, plus its machine learning algorithms, generates what it things should come after that prompt. But it has no conception of what is factually true, it only has strings of information.
For example, if you prompt it with "What is 2 + 2?" It will probably say 4. Not because it us doing a mathematical calculation, or understands what math is, or because it knows 4 is right, but because in all of its training data the text "2 + 2" is overwhelming followed by the text "4".
In fact, more sophisticated models can actually be more prone to giving less correct answers in some situations as illustrated here:
drafterman t1_iyeuidw wrote
Reply to comment by Common_Technologies in ELI5 why fraudsters like Anna Sorokin managed to deposit bad checks and immediately withdraw cash elsewhere without banks stopping it? by 6horrigoth
The gain is people do business with you versus another bank.
drafterman t1_iyegbl1 wrote
Reply to comment by 6horrigoth in ELI5 why fraudsters like Anna Sorokin managed to deposit bad checks and immediately withdraw cash elsewhere without banks stopping it? by 6horrigoth
Because that process takes time, up to several days. And if it took several days for people to get money from their check no one would use it. So instead they give you the money immediately while the transaction is verified.
Yes, it allows for these loopholes, but people exploiting this in this manner are far and few between. It'd be more harmful getting rid of this loophole then allowing it.
drafterman t1_iye6fvw wrote
Reply to ELI5 why do things like drinks need food dye in them? Can’t we just leave out the dye since some cause health issues? by Ballisticpop34
They don't need food dye and we can leave them out. We choose to put dye to make them look more appealing or more in line with expectations.
drafterman t1_iydrkh3 wrote
Reply to comment by Aurigae54 in ELI5: Why does stuff dissolve in hot water more? by samuelma
It is also the average kinetic energy of the water molecules that is a main driver of volume as well, so the concepts are not unrelated.
drafterman t1_iydc96g wrote
Reply to comment by Aurigae54 in ELI5: Why does stuff dissolve in hot water more? by samuelma
>Liquids have a fixed volume regardless of temperature
drafterman t1_iyczyfw wrote
Reply to ELI5: How is that space is “flat” yet we are able to look around the universe (up, down, left, right, etc.,) as if it were not flat? by nhabz
"Flat" in this context means in terms of curvature. Using 2D as an example you can have a piece of paper which is 2D and flat or something like the surface of a balloon which is 2D and curved.
The problem is that, from the perspective of any beings that live on and are constrained by those 2D surfaces, the world just looks "flat" to them in both cases because any 2D beams of light are also constrained to the surface. The balloon case is curved, but it is curved through a third dimension which 2D beings cannot perceive.
Stepping back up into our 3D work, there is an open question as to whether our 3D space is "flat" or "curved" in the 3D sense. If it was curved, it would be curved through a fourth dimension which we cannot directly perceive, so how could we tell?
Stepping back down into 2D, our 2D beings could indirectly determine the curvature of their world through triangles. In the flat 2D world, any triangles they made would have angles whose sum always equals 180 degrees. But in the curved 2D world, you would be able to make triangles whose angles sum to greater than 180 degrees.
This property also works in 3D. If our universe is flat, then triangles all have angles that sum up to 180 degrees and if it is curved then they could sum up to greater than 180 degrees. By picking distant objects (such as far away stars and galaxies) and measuring the relative distances between those objects, we can calculate their angles. Within a certain margin of error, we've calculate that our universe is either flat or has a very very very very small amount of curvature.
drafterman t1_iyctbea wrote
Solids dissolve better in hot water because hot water has more space between the molecules to accommodate them. Gasses dissolve worse in hot water for the same reason: the extra space allows the gas to escape.
drafterman t1_iybapjg wrote
Reply to comment by tdscanuck in ELI5 How is the Tether price I pay determined? by LGZee
Yes. You want money tied to the dollar? Keep your dollars.
drafterman t1_iyb0kbx wrote
Reply to comment by Any-Growth8158 in ELI5: Why is wales a country but not the states of the US by coolredditfan
They gave up that sovereignty when they joined the Union as States.
drafterman t1_jacw2sw wrote
Reply to ELI5: Why was Chinese culture so influential throughout all of East Asia particularly Japan and Korea? by astarisaslave
Because it was the only major culture there. Japan is an island and Korea is a peninsula. So on one side you have China and on all other sides you have vast ocean. In terms of being influenced, there wasn't any other options.