Submitted by Lass_OM t3_117oez7 in askscience
I know this might sound like a very dumb question, but upon reading this article https://www.lemonde.fr/sciences/article/2023/02/20/vih-un-troisieme-cas-de-probable-guerison-de-l-infection-apres-une-greffe-de-moelle-osseuse_6162618_1650684.html#xtor=AL-32280270-%5Bdefault%5D-%5Bios%5D , I read this sentence which really surprised me: "Etant donné que moins de 1 % de la population générale porte cette mutation protectrice du VIH" (Given that less than 1% of the entire population bears this HIV protective mutation […]).
Am I misunderstanding something, or is there some genes out there that allow for some kind of protection against HIV? If so, what explains that we cannot get some sort of vaccine against it?
This sounds so contradictory to what I thought I knew about HIV that I think I am completely misunderstanding something.
caribbeachbum t1_j9cw4jc wrote
CCR5∆32 -- if you have this mutation on both sides of your family, you are fully immune; if only one side, you are mostly immune. It's not common, but there is a case of a German man who was cured of AIDS after receiving a bone marrow transplant from someone who was heterozygotic for the mutation.