Submitted by Sphaerocypraea t3_xtiajf in philosophy
Mr_G_Dizzle t1_iqqja8k wrote
Reply to comment by CPEBachIsDead in Utopia”: meaning ‘no place’; from Greek: οὐ (not’) and τόπος (‘place’) by Sphaerocypraea
Care to tell us how they would pronounce it in the premodern era?
Remon_Kewl t1_iqqw2vj wrote
Premodern era, like what /u/j4trail said. Ancient era, probably like /u/WaddlingTriforce said. There aren't only ancient greek or modern greek eras. There are a couple of stages in between.
Provokateur t1_iqsnkgd wrote
No one knows. No one has found a pronunciation guide from ancient Greece (and even if we did, it would be written in a language we didn't know how to pronounce, so it wouldn't help) and obviously we don't have audio recordings.
I've taken a few graduate classes in Classical philosophy, and in each the professor said that we don't have the correct pronunciation of terms, so we should just say it phonetically or however we prefer.
What matters is what Thomas More intended in the 16th century, which other comments speak to.
WaddlingTriforce t1_iqqmnjq wrote
Probably something like: "Eh-oo-t-ο-p-os"
(I'm not certain exactly how the omicron was pronounced)
And know that the "Eu" later became the sound "you" as in Euphoria or Euclid, so it'd transform into "you-topia"
Sam_k_in t1_iqsghc9 wrote
Maybe like the german ö?
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