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Purely_Theoretical t1_j74wq52 wrote

How can one reason that the social contract is legitimate? How was it consented to? What happens when the state breaks their end of the contract?

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VitriolicViolet t1_j78xn36 wrote

its legitimacy is recursive (its legit because enough people say it is) its consented too by birth (assuming you are not moving somewhere else) and when the state breaks it nothing inherently happens, if the population decide the sate has lost legitimacy then it has lost legitimacy.

personally i dont think 'social contract' theory holds up well in the absence of 'no mans land' ie for social contract theory to be legitimate you need to be able to refuse it and all others.

i would argue it currently holds no legitimacy due to relying purely on force and coercion (i cannot build my own home and farm my own food anywhere on the planets surface ie it is illegal for me to leave the social contract as they apply to every square cm of the globe)

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Bodywithoutorgans18 t1_j79341o wrote

>its legitimacy is recursive (its legit because enough people say it is)

It is recursive down to a group level and not an individual level though, which makes it stronger than other things that are recursive. "The State" can be recursive down to an individual level, anarchy exists for example. Even within pure anarchy though, there is still some sort of implied social contract.

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tbryan1 t1_j7je1iz wrote

"i would argue it currently holds no legitimacy due to relying purely on force and coercion (i cannot build my own home and farm my own food anywhere on the planets surface ie it is illegal for me to leave the social contract as they apply to every square cm of the globe)"

​

This logic is self defeating because if you don't follow a social contract then there is no such thing as ownership of land. There are no laws at all. Your implying that an entire civilization out to destroy itself so people can see what it's like to live without one. The reality is a social contract is a necessary component of a civilization, so no level of enforcement can be coercion so long as you are in that civilization.

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contractualist OP t1_j74x8v1 wrote

That’s basically what my substack is dedicated to discussing. But I answer those questions here here and here respectively.

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Purely_Theoretical t1_j74y09x wrote

> Laws under these regimes can be compared to an illegal contract. This can include a contract where one party acted under duress, coercion, or fraudulent information. Under our legal system, contracts like these would be voidable,...

Hence, the failure of social contract theory to handle explicit rejection of consent.

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contractualist OP t1_j74ykqh wrote

Just because you do not consent to our criminal law regime doesn’t give one the right to commit crimes. People can’t consent out of the moral universe. And those principles of the moral universe shape our very consent rules (when consent is and is not necessary nor sufficient to create binding agreements, what type of consent is required, what is and is not subject to consent etc.)

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DeusAxeMachina t1_j75mdlm wrote

If what you call the moral universe predates the social contract, then what you have is a Lockean view of natural rights, not a social contract based one.

For a view of natural rights to be rooted in a social contract, it needs an actual social contract to work, not a law of nature disguised as a social contract by inconsistent terminology.

If one is not a part of the social contract, then saying that they "don't have the right to commit crimes" is incoherent as a right/obligation analysis doesn't apply to them.

If the social contract is just a theoretical device for the philosopher to discover the natural rights, then you've just given a Rawlsian-like justification to Lockean natural rights, but you haven't actually shown where those rights come from or what gives them weight.

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bumharmony t1_j77denv wrote

Locke like kant is both moral realist and contractarian.

Everyone can grab resources so far others can do the same. It is pareto optimal truth (realism) so it can function as something what people agree not to violate (contract)

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contractualist OP t1_j76m4jw wrote

This is definitely not a Lockean view of rights, as the article discusses. Instead, it argues that these rights come from the reason based principles of the social contract. These principles create rights (in the metaphysical sense) and we discover them (in the real world sense). And I argue why these reason-based principles have moral weight here and here.

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DeusAxeMachina t1_j76out6 wrote

Again, since your "social contract" isn't really a contract at all, and basically collapses into "rationality," you inadvertently end up with a Lockean view. Having the words "social contract" in your article isn't enough to disprove this point when you do nothing to show the presence of an actual social contract. All it is is terminology salad.

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contractualist OP t1_j76pnoy wrote

>Again, since your "social contract" isn't really a contract at all, and basically collapses into "rationality,"

"The social contract is a metaphor for the exchange of freedom for reason-based duties." This is what I say in the piece I linked. If you mean a material written contract binding on all, then no, that doesn't exist. If you mean principles that people would reasonably agree to, then yes, those exist and have moral weight, as the linked pieces discuss.

But I argue in the piece why a Lockean conception of rights fail to address the specification, prioritization, and genealogy problems, and how a social contract analysis does (again, its only a metaphor).

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DeusAxeMachina t1_j76rhyt wrote

If your "social" "contract" (which is, as it seems, neither social nor a contract) is a metaphor, then I'm sorry but you've literally got a Lockean view with an extra, unnecessary step. Let me demonstrate:

Here is a classic Lockean view:

  1. The laws of morality are imposed on us.
  2. Those laws include rights and duties.
  3. We have rights and duties.

Here is an actual social contract based view:

  1. We agree (implicitly or explicitly, but actually) to a social contract.
  2. This social contract includes rights and duties.
  3. We have rights and duties.

Lastly, here is your view:

  1. The laws of rationality are imposed on us.
  2. Those laws require us to exist under a "social contract".
  3. This "social contract" includes rights and duties.
  4. We have rights and duties.

It is immediately apparent that your view is just an extended take on the first, Lockean view. The "social contract" in your view doesn't actually do any explanatory work, and so can't address the problems of justification and source. Your proposed solution is simply taking the solution that would be applicable in an actual social contract driven view, and trying to apply it in a view that, when examined closely, does not feature a social contract at all. When you start talking about "principles that people would reasonably agree to" rather than "principles that people actually (though perhaps implicitly) agree to", you've completely removed the consent element and thus removed your argument from being applicable for consent-based justifications. This isn't to mean that this position is unjustifiable, but the justification will need to be a Lockean one, as you're arguing for a Lockean view.

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contractualist OP t1_j76sq2w wrote

Not all views of an objective morality pre-existing the state are Lockean. There are many different schools of thought in meta-ethics. Mine is metaethical constructivism linked here if you would like to read it. You will find references to Kant, not Locke.

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DeusAxeMachina t1_j76u798 wrote

>Not all views of an objective morality pre-existing the state are Lockean

This is certainly true, and it is not my intention to discuss all views of objective morality existing before the state, just yours. Which I insist, is Lockean in its conception and justification, as it sees rights as a natural component of reality that is imposed on agents. It is not surprising, considering (as I'm sure you know), Kant's philosophy was largely a response to the Empiricist school Locke belonged to, and he operated from largely the same groundwork as they did. Kant's view is, in the way that matters for this discussion, Lockean, and it is definitely (even more so than your view) not a social contract based view. Thus, my previous argument, that your justifications are not applicable to your view, still stands regardless of whether you personally trace your inspiration to Kant or Locke.

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contractualist OP t1_j76x6oe wrote

I argue that there are no moral facts outside of a hypothetical contractual procedure, Locke argues that there are. That is how I am not a Lockean.

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DeusAxeMachina t1_j76yz57 wrote

If your contractual procedure is hypothetical - a thought experiment for the philosopher to discover rights, then your position is simply that moral rights exist in nature, the same as Locke.

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contractualist OP t1_j7713h7 wrote

Not discover, create. And there would not be rights outside of this procedure. This is discussed in the article: " it’s reason that leads us to develop the universal moral principles which make up the social contract." And these moral principles are the basis of our rights.

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DeusAxeMachina t1_j772hgc wrote

For a procedure to create something it must be actual, not hypothetical. If what you call a "social contract" is nothing but an expression of reason, then, again, that's just a Lockean view and the term "social contract" is misappropriated.

Like I said before, your position is self-inconsistent as it tries to use social contract based justifications without including an actual social contract, but simply "something else" (rationality) that you use the words "social contract" for.

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contractualist OP t1_j773kk0 wrote

I've addressed hypothetical consent here. Summary: You can't have moral principles of actual consent without reference to the social contract, which relies on hypothetical consent. Actual consent depends on hypothetical consent.

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DeusAxeMachina t1_j774byz wrote

This does not answer the problem. Noting that consent is based on underlying principles doesn't do anything to give authority to hypothetical consent, nor is hypothetical consent the only possible value to base actual consent on.

All you've done is to (again) reduce yourself to a Lockean position in more steps, as the law that you base rights on is agent-independent. And so, the social contract based justifications you give in the article still aren't applicable, and the terminology used is still misappropriated.

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contractualist OP t1_j775718 wrote

I've already addressed why the social contract has moral authority in the above-linked pieces, as well as why I am not a Lockean.

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DeusAxeMachina t1_j775ott wrote

You've done neither in regards to this specific understanding (or rather, simply changing the meaning of a term) of "social contracts".

Your arguments do not fit the position you're arguing for, as they imply an actual contract and not Lockean rights in a poor disguise.

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contractualist OP t1_j77h10a wrote

Social contract theory has never referred to an actual, material, morally binding agreement. No social contract theorist has argued this. Rather, it is a very common misconception and mischaracterization of the argument. I'd recommend reading the above posted articles that develop this contractualist view. Keep in mind that you're addressing a strawman.

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DeusAxeMachina t1_j77j9tw wrote

Of course it has. Implicit consent (and other less popular "consent replacements") has been an argued position since Rousseau's time.

I've skimmed over the articles you posted and haven't seen anything to suggest that the view I ascribed to you is inaccurate.

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contractualist OP t1_j77l766 wrote

Implicit consent is not actual consent as you refer to above. Only Locke has made a serious argument for implicit consent, which contractualists have not adopted. Social contract theory takes after Kant and Rawls. Again, why this social contract theory is not Lockean but Kantian.

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DeusAxeMachina t1_j77mwpr wrote

This is outright false. Locke saw rights as God given natural facts, not based on any kind of consent, implicit or otherwise. You are talking nonsense.

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contractualist OP t1_j77ng5a wrote

See here for Locke on tacit consent. Again, contractualists don't take either an actual or implicit consent view. This is a misunderstanding of the philosophy.

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DeusAxeMachina t1_j77nwun wrote

This is Locke's argument for Political Authority, not natural rights.

There is no misunderstanding, the view is internally inconsistent

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contractualist OP t1_j77p45i wrote

Yes, this is the only argument made for implicit consent and its not even applied to moral philosophy (I'm not even sure how implicit consent would apply in that case). Again, contractualists have never used either actual or implicit consent, and their failure to do so isn't Lockean. To attribute this view onto them is a blatant misunderstanding. But if you know of any social contract theorists that rely on those ideas of consent, I'd be curious to know.

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DeusAxeMachina t1_j77po2j wrote

Try Hobbes.

Contractualists don't rely on either type of consent. They try to make rights do things only an argument from consent could jusify. The conception of rights and justifications don't fit each other. Thus, internally inconsistent.

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contractualist OP t1_j77qjhw wrote

Hobbes never relied on actual consent either. And yes they do, because you can't declare rights that impose duties onto others without a reasonable justification that others can reasonably accept. And this is not Locke's view of rights.

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DeusAxeMachina t1_j77r0jo wrote

It's not a Lockean justification for rights, yet contractualists use is to justify a Lockean conception of what natural rights are (moral facts). You are either not properly distinguishing between Lockean arguments and Lockean conclusions, or you really do not see the incoherency between the justification and the idea that it is meant to support. Either way, the inconsistency remains.

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LobYonder t1_j77kikb wrote

You can argue the "social contract" is the willing acceptance of a group's rules in order to obtain in-group or social benefits. It is a valid "contract" to the extent that you can leave the group and it's rules and join another (or live as Robinson Crusoe).

There is no a-priori reason to suppose a group's rules would be fair or maximize benefits over restrictions, however as long as there are multiple groups and individuals or families can migrate between them or influence the rules, then there is a selection effect towards the most beneficial, fair and effective rules. The fact that other primates also have strong concepts of "fairness" suggests that this group selection on rights and duties has been affecting our ancestors for millions of years. Thus you can argue that modern societies have reached a near-optimal and thus pretty "moral" set of rules for maximum personal net benefit with minimal restrictions and unfairness. It is therefore probably unreasonable for someone to reject modern social norms. I don't know if this is considered a Lockean view.

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DeusAxeMachina t1_j77lzlp wrote

>You can argue the "social contract" is the willing acceptance of a group's rules in order to obtain in-group or social benefits

You can, that would be implicit (or explicit) consent, which is not the view argued in the article (theoretical consent - the idea that people would consent if they were rational).

You can certainly support a view of rights that is based in implicit or explicit consent to a(n actual) social contract, but then you'd run into the problem of not being able to apply those rules and restrictions to people who explicitly do not consent to the social contract.

As for whether modern social contracts maximize personal wellbeing, and whether the survival of such contracts or the apparent mass consent to them is indication of such is an entire discussion to have, and one that I'll not participate in for now, if you can forgive me for that. However, as for the question of whether that Lockean view, it isn't. I'd say your view (and this depends on how you view "benefit" and "unfairness") is closer to Utilitarianism. I'm not familiar with J.S Mill's theory of rights, but I'd guess his position is somewhat similar.

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LobYonder t1_j77p1p1 wrote

> not being able to apply those rules and restrictions to people who explicitly do not consent to the social contract.

If someone I don't have a "social contract" agreement with attacks me I will certainly defend myself and perhaps kill them if necessary, and that would be morally justified. I don't need their agreement to do that. Similarly if someone who doesn't agree to my town's social contract regarding property rights breaks into my home and steals my stuff why should I need their agreement to apply the law? If you don't agree with the town rules you should not enter the town.

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DeusAxeMachina t1_j77qegd wrote

If you source moral and legal authority from a social contract, then no, you can't apply the law to people who are not part of that contract. That is what "willing agreement" means.

To prevent people who do not agree with the town rules from entering the town, you need a moral law that allows limiting their freedom in that way. And of course, that law can't be the town rules, because they're not part of the town, and because if that were the case you'd fall into infinite regress.

So if you want to justify applying legal codes outside of willing participants, you need something beyond consent to justify that.

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LobYonder t1_j77qw5a wrote

That's why the option to leave is important. If they chose to stay they are subject to the rules. That is their choice.

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DeusAxeMachina t1_j77rid7 wrote

What of people who do not have a reasonable option to leave? Can the law not be applied to them?

And more importantly, what of people who decide to stay but explicitly confirm that they do not want to be a part of the social contract, benefits or otherwise? The option to leave is important because people staying when they could leave is an indication that they accept the town rules, and that indication could be overruled by an even stronger indication (explicit statement) to the contrary.

If you argue that people should be forced between leaving the state or accepting its laws regardless of their personal consent, then you need a moral justification for that, and we run into the same problem from before.

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Purely_Theoretical t1_j74zobm wrote

Just because you and a majority consent to a moral system, doesn't make the system actually moral. Sometimes one is morally bound to violated immoral laws.

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contractualist OP t1_j750a2k wrote

Yes I discuss the fact that democratic majorities don’t have inherent moral legitimacy here. And that unjust laws are a breach of the agreement in a previously linked post. But that is not what my comment stated. Just because we don’t consent to certain moral rules doesn’t mean we aren’t morally bound by them. Otherwise, consent is meaningless (because why respect anyone’s consent if we don’t have moral rules?).

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YawnTractor_1756 t1_j7709xs wrote

>Just because you do not consent to our criminal law regime doesn’t give one the right to commit crimes.

That's not how it is though. People casually disagree and change criminal law through disobeying it.

Say outlawing being a gay, and demanding "not to break the law" will not fly with people. They will definitely see it as a right to break it.

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VitriolicViolet t1_j78y6t8 wrote

i would argue that unless you have the option of opting out of all social contracts then it holds no legitimacy (without the option to leave it by definition is using force and coercion to gain 'consent').

there is no where on earth where you can build your own home 'freely' (ie without paying for permission to the state and being extorted annually)

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special_circumstance t1_j78lygb wrote

One doesn’t need a “right” to commit crimes, so why would you say that not consenting to criminal law doesn’t give one the right to commit crimes? It’s a confusing argument because it introduces an irrelevant element to the topic. I think what’s missing here is the important reality that it is not “rights” that empower people. The thing that empowers people is power and the threat and use of violence to force others to observe and act according to what we imagine to be acceptable. The nature of the violence is not the same in this application. Sometimes it’s physical bodily threats, harm, and destruction. Sometimes it’s psychological violence like isolation, public humiliation, and censorship. Sometimes it’s revisionist, property damage, and sabotage. For example: we can’t beat a malicious usurer to death with our rights. We can, however, declare our rights to have been violated and then beat them to death with a stick.

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Due_Example5177 t1_j76jxet wrote

This. I would argue that, as I don’t consent, and as my existence was a crime at birth and until 2003, with the Lawrence V Texas ruling, thus breaking the social contract, the onus is on the State to establish legitimacy by earning consent…or fail at doing so and remain illegitimate.

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WhittlingDan t1_j78ke1f wrote

Your existence wasn't a crime the action was because straight could and had been charged with sodomy. The law definitely was used to target gay people though and was wrong. No victim, no crime.

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Due_Example5177 t1_j78omay wrote

No, my existence was criminalized. That’s how we are intimate with our partners.

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WhittlingDan t1_j79vez9 wrote

Then the intimacy was criminalized still not the existence. That case was talking specifically about a sodomy law. If you do not have sex is your existence causing a crime? No. Now was the law intended to target gay people? Absolutely that was the case and it criminalized an important part of intimate relationships. You do not need to have sex to be gay and those people were not "criminalized.". It was bigoted and meant to target gay people by targeting an act that people can do. This really feels like an argument about semantics. Im not against anything relating to gay, straight or sodomy but am a stickler for meaning and clarity.

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Due_Example5177 t1_j79vo1v wrote

Right. So it criminalized our existence. It’s the same thing. Every gay person has sex at some point. There’s no difference here. Our existence was illegal. It was a soft genocide.

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Accurate_Mango9661 t1_j7cr6a4 wrote

Actually plenty of gay people have no interest in sex. "Existence" is not equal to "intimacy", not even remotely. It's the same childish argument Trans activists use.

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Due_Example5177 t1_j7cshhe wrote

False. What you describe is homoromantic asexual. And yet another excuse for fascistic genocide. Gay, aka homoSEXUAL is about sexual attraction

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locri t1_j74fzhz wrote

Besides the consistent shade on libertarians, I can't find many firm claims to argue against. Just got to say, if someone says "please leave me alone" and they walk alone, the belief that this is an infringement of your rights would be bizarre. It's not a great answer, but I must have the right to walk away, I must have the negative right away from people who feel entitled to whatever I have.

This isn't "property rights" it's simply an argument against being a greedy dick... And it's the entirety of libertarianism.

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contractualist OP t1_j74itpb wrote

It depends, There would be cases where one may not have a right to walk away (say, the person is being arrested for a crime) or someone else's rights might trump the right to walk away (for instance, if a parent is trying to walk away from a child).

The ethical standard we use to specify and prioritize rights are found in the social contract, which is based on freedom and justifiable reasons to require duties from others. The article explains that rights aren't intuitive. The thousands of pages of contract law, property law, criminal procedure law etc. aren't intuitive. They are based on reasons that justify imposing duties onto others.

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acutelychronicpanic t1_j76vt5v wrote

The social contract is an after-the-fact justification rather than the basis for society.

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bumharmony t1_j77dsbo wrote

The only system that is coherent is then free grabbing of everything. That is the only real ex ante view to how societies necessarily begin.

But still one gets eventually shot for doing that?

How you make a theory of justice in this question begging framework of having legal right to ”protective violence” and gatekeeping all of the resources?

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VitriolicViolet t1_j78yrhz wrote

>How you make a theory of justice in this question begging framework of having legal right to ”protective violence” and gatekeeping all of the resources?

'liberalism' in a nutshell.

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bumharmony t1_j7alals wrote

Also statism in general.

Classical liberalism at least theorizes from a prestate scenario. Unlike statist theories. Maybe you just don't understand the concept.

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locri t1_j74qy7p wrote

Negligence is a little difference as it involves an action first to create the situation in which walking away is immoral. Truly an exception that proves the rule, without prior action and intentions behind those action then any claims of rights violation are probably a form of rights violation themselves.

As in, claiming someone isn't your slave and giving you free food becomes a rights violation because you're fabricating their responsibility with the intent of depriving them of the ability to simply walk away. Something similar happens when states build walls to keep people in. This is why a standard of guilt is necessary in this argument.

And finally why I stand by my right to walk away until you prove this responsibility was voluntarily chosen with informed consent.

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contractualist OP t1_j74t5oq wrote

And what is the basis for exceptions to the rule? It would have to be ethical principles as well.

The same goes for consent, as I describe here, (are we talking about informed consent, implied consent, consent with attorney representation, consent under duress, etc).

The basis which we determine exceptions to rights, like the right to freely walk (or someone else’s right to stop you) or where consent isn’t necessary or sufficient to create an agreement, is the social contact, which is made up of publicly justifiable reasons.

All rights require a duty to be imposed on someone else. And those duties need to be justified. Again, they aren’t intuitive. It’s not as simple as stating “just don’t be a jerk.”

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locri t1_j74ucs2 wrote

Mens rea and actus reus is the basis.

It's very basic, you can even find similar ideas in Nietzsche's beyond good and evil because these aren't value judgements or moral rulings. If you're involved, you're involved and that's why it's an exception.

I'm not involved in the pains of randoms, I may feel empathy and I may want to help (often, it's more uncomfortable to not help) but I'm absolutely not obliged and my charity shouldn't be a granted, as the soft slavers I'm describing beleive it is.

> All rights require a duty to be imposed on someone else.

You should have listened to libertarians more before trashing.

An obligation is a positive right, as in you have a right to something and the addition is positive. Negative rights have absolutely no implication of duty, you don't have a duty to fuck off my property and stop spray painting my property, you should just not and doing not costs you absolutely nothing.

But if you continue, then you are now involved with me against my will and I therefore have an obligation to uninvolve you.. By calling the fucking cops.

Because it's absolutely free and easy to not feel entitled to my property. Again, this is why property rights are a thing... Because fuck off.

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contractualist OP t1_j74wy4z wrote

Mens rea and actus reus only refer to mental states and actions. Different crimes require different mental states and actions, so they aren’t helpful for actually shaping criminal law. They’re just legal elements (and this only applies to criminal law).

Involvement is determined by proximate causation, which would depend on reason-based factors (intentions, foreseeability, geography, etc.) Again, it’s not intuitive and even the rights that seem straightforward tend to have exceptions. For instance, you won’t have the right to kick someone off of your property if they have taken that property through adverse possession (which also depends on reason-based factors). The standard which we can say an act is right or wrong is based on social contract principles. Simply declaring rights isn’t helpful for the specification, prioritization, or genealogy problems I discuss in the piece. Libertarianism fails to address these problems.

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locri t1_j74ybj5 wrote

One references an action, the other references the state of mind. It is a near perfect theory that encompasses the physical and mental and provides me with one fool proof answer that you still haven't address. It even criminalises pollution, as to pollute knowingly is an action.

And it is the basis of a standard of guilt.

But what do I owe without action? The answer is nothing, or, no more than anyone else. This is the perfect negative right, until you convince me of a responsibility which almost certain demands the physical proof and an evaluation of my guilt before the standard is achieved.

This is how libertarianism addresses the problem. It does so by reminding you what slavery is.

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WhittlingDan t1_j78lv21 wrote

I asked this elsewhere but could you please give me the definition you hold and use for what libertarian is?

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WhittlingDan t1_j78llxl wrote

Can you please give me the definition you hold and use for what libertarian is?

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[deleted] t1_j76wlto wrote

If a factory spews so much pollution that literally the entire planet's air is less fit for breathing, how will you walk away?

There are actions from which it's impossible to walk away.

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hononononoh t1_j77f1i4 wrote

The whole notion of “externalities” — recipients of one’s actions that can be safely disregarded and walked away from without consequence, troubles me deeply, and very much puts the “dismal” in “dismal science”. We clearly evolved in a world where externalities abounded, and could be counted on. Is our species capable of handling a world where there aren’t, and cannot be, any externalities? I hope so, but I’m not at all sure.

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WhittlingDan t1_j78kr4o wrote

Not all libertarians believe in "private property" and "property rights" the same way. I'm a libertarian socialist. As a socialist I distinguish between private and personal property.

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locri t1_j78s5wy wrote

And how would you stop someone owning private property whilst maintaining the word "libertarian"?

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VitriolicViolet t1_j78zs3d wrote

same way Libertarians stop someone from owning the majority of resources and becoming a dictator: 'optimism'.

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WhittlingDan t1_j79w2cx wrote

Im not here to explain away ignorance relating so socialism/capitalism and personal property/private property.

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ItisyouwhosaythatIam t1_j775fr8 wrote

Listen to "Know Your Rights" by The Clash. They sum it up beautifully. Rights are not consistently nor equitably upheld or defended anyplace on earth or anytime throughout history. Richer, better connected people are more likely to get what they want from the system - period. The rest is just philosophy. Individual philosophy has never, anywhere, been more powerful than wealth or weapons. Collectively, people can achieve anything - with or without philosophy.

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SuspiciousRelation43 t1_j77zy0k wrote

Unless they have anything else to elaborate on than the premise of dialectical materialism, I don’t see how that is useful. Obviously that’s what happens; humans are social, and ability to persuade others into allying with oneself is not entirely correlated with a genuine or altruistic reciprocation. That doesn’t affect the aim of social philosophy, which is attempting to understand the principles underlying those same dynamics.

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ItisyouwhosaythatIam t1_j78o2hq wrote

It seems to me the only principle underlying is that of self preservation. People have figured out that social groups prolong life for the individual - as long as they - despite what they must profess - continue to cover their own asses, first. It is the biggest lie around, that half or more aren't willing to put the good of the many ahead of their own interests, but they pretend that they do.

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Trubadidudei t1_j761pyw wrote

Aren't rights just another imaginary word that we use in our imaginary vocabulary of how we describe our imaginary set of morals? This article mentions the fact that some would describe them as "nonsense", but fails to provide any meaningful rebuttal. To me, the word "rights" seems to be just another word for a set of moral codes. A set that we imagine to be more fundamental in some way or another.

Going on at length to adress "where rights come from" seems like a pointless excercise at best. They come from our imagination, mean nothing to anyone else, and have no consequences other than the ones we give them. Their definition is whatever we agree on, and clearly people don't agree much on the topic. They are a set of moral codes described by a fancy word.

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bumharmony t1_j77ks8a wrote

Did you know everything - including iffy natural scientific stories - are man made so man madedness does make an argument against anything?

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Trubadidudei t1_j784962 wrote

> so man madedness does make an argument against anything?

I'm going to assume that there is a "not" missing between "does" and "make".

And this is the kind of useless statements that only make sense within the vacuum of philosophical discourse.

You know, there are a lot of iffy man made scientific stories about something called "oxidation", but I guess it being man made means that it's equivalent to all other man made stories. Hey, how about we go for a fun little duel of equal man made ideas! I'll grab my gun, and you go grab your pheonix-feather core wand. My bullets can't pierce your Protego Maximus, and I'm sure you can Expelliarmus me before I shoot you in the head.

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bumharmony t1_j785d73 wrote

And for lunatics like you we need man made rules so that you don’t get to roam free which is naturally a vacuum-like ground zero for the discussion rather than a man made thing.

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Trubadidudei t1_j78rket wrote

Certainly, resorting to personal insults does tend to suck the life out of the debate, as well as concede the fact that you have nothing to say in reply. A good argument is clearly not one of the man made things that you can make.

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bumharmony t1_j78stnj wrote

I have never gotten past the point of introductory knowledge in these Reddit discussions.

Instead every day there are several new introductory topics about same themes.

Must be the limitations of chat bots.

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SuspiciousRelation43 t1_j783ogd wrote

This is a bad argument. No, rights are not physical or materially real; that does not make them “fake” or contrived. Rather, they could be thought of as more or less useful in understanding material processes and relationships, in this case between people.

Your argument is essentially the premise of Empiricism. But what you and the Empiricists fail to grasp is that everything we comprehend is man-made. Our conception of a physical rock is just as much a psychological construct as a notion of natural rights.

Consider this very exchange. Certainly, our words and arguments are constructed psychologically and socially. But that doesn’t alter the purpose of the debate. In fact, it justifies it. If our words were perfectly consistent with the nature of reality, there would be no such thing as a debate, since a perfect word would need no elaboration; and if they were completely discordant, then there would also be no utility gained from engaging in debate.

So, our psychological constructs are not perfect, but neither are they completely fictitious. Thus, arguments are more or less accurate of reality, which is pretty much the starting point of any understanding of any rhetorical interaction.

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Trubadidudei t1_j78okr0 wrote

> No, rights are not physical or materially real; that does not make them “fake” or contrived. Rather, they could be thought of as more or less useful in understanding material processes and relationships, in this case between people.

I agree with this. Imaginary concepts can certainly be useful, and I'd definetely say that rights are one of those, and a good thing for humanity overall. All I object to is the speaking of rights as if they are a discrete and "real" concept that can be discovered.

> Your argument is essentially the premise of Empiricism. But what you and the Empiricists fail to grasp is that everything we comprehend is man-made. Our conception of a physical rock is just as much a psychological construct as a notion of natural rights.

First of all, I understand the underpinnings of this argument. I understand the fact that we can never truly peer behind the veil of our own cognition. But this is just philosophical masturbation, and you do not act by those words even as you say them. Yes, all concepts exist to us only within our own cognition, but that does equate purely imaginary concepts with ones based in what we perceive as "physical reality". If you disagree we can perform a simple experiment: Take your notion of natural rights, and then throw it at my head. Then I'll go find an sensory object that I conceive off as a valid equivalent to my psychological construct of a rock, and I'll throw it at yours. I hypothesize that the effects of these actions will be somewhat different.

Yes, purely imaginary concepts such as "natural rights" can have a much bigger impact on the world than any amount of rock throwing, because we act upon them. I'm not saying they are not a part of physical reality. The brain is real, and what goes on inside one has real consequences. Technically, if we're being strict about it, there is no line distinguishing imagination from "reality". However, imaginary ideas are fundamentally flexible in a way that differs significantly from "reality". You and I can have completely different conceptions of the meaning of the word "rights", and the best we can hope for as a resolution is the agreements and disagreements of ourselves and others. Meanwhile, our conception of rocks might differ significantly, but the rock will have the same structure, mass and velocity, independent of whose head it is thrown at.

> Certainly, our words and arguments are constructed psychologically and socially.

Agreed

> But that doesn’t alter the purpose of the debate. In fact, it justifies it. If our words were perfectly consistent with the nature of reality, there would be no such thing as a debate, since a perfect word would need no elaboration; and if they were completely discordant, then there would also be no utility gained from engaging in debate.

Well, the debate would be significantly different if we were discussing our relative conceptions of rocks. For one, we could put forth hypotheses about rocks and come together to perform experiments on one. In doing so we could agree whose conception of a "rock" most closely correlates with the common sensory impulses we get from observing rock-related experiments, and get some idea of whose conception most closely matches what we think of as "reality". We have an external "judge" upon which to test our words and conceptions, and we can refine them both as a result. We might start with "rock", but end up with "Foid monzosyenite". Anyone else studying the same rock by the same methods, and given the same tools, time, intellect and rock studying passion would end up with more or less exactly the same name (ok perhaps not the same name, but the same conception).

But we are discussing an inter-imaginary concept, which makes for a very different debate. By debating we can refine our inter-imaginary set of logical precepts, and even agree on a set definition of the word. Let's say that, after a fierce debate, we agree that we both agree on what a right is, and that we have the right to self-determination and life. Tomorrow we meet someone that used the same logic to arrive at his right to determine the lives of others, and that proceeds to bash our heads in with a foid monzosyenite.

Did he not have the right to do this or not? Did he violate our rights by determining to take our lives, when we had just agreed that we had a right to live? But what about what his opinion that he has the right to take our lives? Who has the better definition of the word? I'm sure the debate would have been interesting and useful, as we elaborated on our understanding through rhetorical interaction. I'm also sure that whatever psychological concept and word we would have had for them, rock, foid monzosyenite or lumpy smashy thingy, if we had one we could have hit his rock with our rock and they would have gone "clunk" and perhaps saved our heads to self-determine yet another day.

This turned into a pretty long and stupid argument from my side. My point is that all words and psychological constructs are not created equal, and that this does in fact make a pretty significant difference.

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contractualist OP t1_j76mx2z wrote

If they come from our imagination, they have no moral weight. Your imagination can't make anyone else do anything, like respecting your entitlements. The rebuttal (the answer to the specification, prioritization, and genealogy problems) is provided in the last section.

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Trubadidudei t1_j776ciu wrote

> If they come from our imagination, they have no moral weight

All moral concept comes from our imagination. It is a purely inter-imaginary concept. Are you saying that morality itself has no moral weight, because it does not exist outside of the mind? Morality has consequence in reality because we act upon it, but that does not make it any less imaginary than Harry Potter.

> Your imagination can't make anyone else do anything, like respecting your entitlements.

This is simply wrong, especially when you consider that I said "our imagination" and not "my imagination". I was specifically referring to inter-imaginatory concepts, and in this sense you are replying to a strawman. However, let met offer two rebuttals, one to the straw man argument you are making(1), and another as if you had dealt with my actual argument(2).

1 - I imagine myself entitled to own a pet cat, and I have this pet cat in my posession. You pick up the pet cat that I imagine myself owning, and start to leave. Imagining my entitlements to be disrespected, I act upon those imaginary concepts by yelling "Drop the cat or I will punch you in the face". You, imagining that being punched in the face is something you do not want, proceed to drop the cat.

There, my imagination just made someone else respect my entitlement. Yes, my imagination did not act directly as if by some form of telepathy, but it imagined a set of noises that did pretty much the same thing. The only physically observable phenomenon were a set of vibrations in the air, and yet by medium of those vibrations my imagination found a way to make the other person imagination imagine a set of very unpleasant consequences to their actions, and made them do something else.

Yes, technically it was my voice - a physical thing - that made someone else do something, but the words to say came from my imagination. If you want to say that the fact that any physical action happened at all disqualifies this argument, I'd liken that a bit to saying that the triceps muscle cannot affect anything because it is in fact my hand that hits you when I punch. Yet, I can concede the fact that this is a semi-valid rebuttal, and to that I'd like to remind you of the fact that it is a rebuttal to a strawman argument that I never made in the first place.

2 - I imagine myself entitled to own a pet cat, and I do have this pet cat in my posession. You also imagine me entitled to own the cat that is currently in my possesion. Both of our imaginations share an acceptance to numerous imaginary concepts, such as ownership, entitlements and so on. In addition, we both imagine that punching someone in the face is an acceptable and likely response to trying to steal someones pet cat. Since we both imagine myself as the owner of the cat in currently in front of us, you imagine that you will be punched in the face if you take it, and so you do not do this.

In this scenario "our" imagination, the imaginary concepts that we both share or our inter-imagination, guided both our actions. You might have wanted to have the cat, but you accepted the inter-imaginary concept of "pet owner" and the consequences of violating certain entitlements that come with that role. Incidentally the cat, a third part in this scenario, almost certainly would not accept being "owned" by anybody, had it understood what this meant. It did not share our inter-imaginary reality, and would have happily gone with anyone that would have fed and petted it.

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contractualist OP t1_j778j3f wrote

>I was specifically referring to inter-imaginatory concepts, and in this sense you are replying to a strawman.

So all one has to do is imagine a different set of rights (say the right to do wrong) and then you have no rights. All this is is "what if we both happened to imagine the same rights?" But what if we don't? What if we had the conflict of John and Bill as discussed in the piece? Do we then not have rights?

I argue that we still do, regardless of our imaginations, that we have rights based on the principles of the social contract. I argue for its meta-ethical basis and its moral authority here and here.

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get_it_together1 t1_j77ksvr wrote

It seems clear that we only have rights that our society agrees to maintain, both positive and negative rights. This is most obvious with women in the modern era, but certainly throughout history there are numerous examples of people being denied what you might consider to be a right. What then is a right if it is so easily violated and if entire societies can deny their existence?

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contractualist OP t1_j77liom wrote

This is a descriptive account of rights, not a normative one that philosophy focuses on. Rights exist regardless of their violation or their declared non-existence or someone's imagination.

−2

get_it_together1 t1_j78dcwx wrote

Philosophy focuses on all types of rights and philosophers debate both which sort of foundation is best for supporting rights and which specific rights should be derived from a given foundation. Given this diversity of thought it seems a bit odd to simply proclaim a particular right to exist regardless of circumstance. I agree that in general in every society some rights exist but this is a very different claim.

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VitriolicViolet t1_j792izx wrote

no they dont.

what you are claiming is that all societies in the past were immoral and that any future societies will also likely be immoral (our conception of rights was different in the past and will be different again in the future).

if we all decided tomorrow that all current rights were in fact incorrect then they would be incorrect by definition.

rights and morals are literally determined by popularity and force.

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Trubadidudei t1_j78149q wrote

There seems to be some kind of disconnect here, as if we are discussing two completely separate matters. You seem to not accept, one some fundamental level, the actual fact that morality, rights, or what have you, is not real, in the sense that it is only happening in our heads. The only reality of these concepts is the one our actions make of them.

> So all one has to do is imagine a different set of rights (say the right to do wrong) and then you have no rights

Well yes, this is kind of the reality of the human condition, see Ukraine for real life examples. Okay, this is kind of a snarky response, as I get the point you're truly trying to make. The problem is that this rebuttal is a non sequitur to the argument I have made. You speak of what rights are, where they come from, and you ask me to answer what happens if they conflict. All of this language implies that you truly do not accept the fundamental reality of the situation we're in, the true fact that rights do not exist outside of our minds. No matter how much you say "unalienable" and argue about social contracts will change this fact. It almost seems silly to point this out, it is such an obvious premise to any moral discussion. But the language that you are using gives the impression that you think the word "rights" refers to some fundamental law in the universe that you can discover if you argue well enough. You speak of rights as if you adhere to Platos theory of form, as if having a really good definition of the word will somehow make it reality. All I can do is to read the words that you write, and this is the impression that they give me.

Look, I think we can all agree that morality is pretty great. And I think we can all agree that moral systems are a necessary keystone in the creation of well functioning groups of human beings. I'm personally a big fan of rights! I think they are a good basis for a lot of good things.

But even the most basic tenets that underpin moral systems get pretty murky when you start to take them too seriously. "Suffering is bad" might seem like a no-brainer until you find EAs arguing about what to do about the "wild animal problem". What you are doing is taking much hazier concepts like "social contract" and "legitimacy", and saying ipso facto rights exist. I guess your argument is logically constructed, but I am not arguing against it's internal logic, I am saying that its fundamental underpinnings hold no basis in reality.

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VitriolicViolet t1_j7923da wrote

>So all one has to do is imagine a different set of rights (say the right to do wrong) and then you have no rights. All this is is "what if we both happened to imagine the same rights?" But what if we don't? What if we had the conflict of John and Bill as discussed in the piece? Do we then not have rights?

yes?

how do you think morals are defined and chosen by societies? through popularity and force.

ie if socialist authoritarism had successfully beaten and replaced capitalist democracy across the globe then it would be considered moral by the majority.

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get_it_together1 t1_j7756zu wrote

The final section doesn’t say much except that the state doesn’t create rights and the US founding fathers considered rights. Leaving aside that the Bill of Rights was literally and amendment to the Constitution and that several key rights were left out, this doesn’t really answer the question at all, it just asserts that some other people considered the question.

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contractualist OP t1_j777h34 wrote

I'd recommend re-reading. I argue that we develop reasonable principles and apply them to specific facts create rights. Their application specifies what these rights are (I provide this linked articleas an example, to show how constitutional principles applied based on reason, create rights). This resolves the specification problem.

And the prioritization problem can be resolved by examining the meta-principles of certain rights (this linked article is provided as an example of how our moral/legal rules of consent are based on meta-ethical principles).

−2

get_it_together1 t1_j77i9k5 wrote

Yes, but that ignores that our legal system wasn’t simply rationally designed but instead evolved over many centuries. The US inherited English common law which traces back past the Magna Carta. Other societies develop other legal systems and sets of rights.

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contractualist OP t1_j77j444 wrote

It doesn't. I discuss this in the piece as well: "[our laws] weren’t created from scratch out of someone’s rational intuition. Rather, they evolved as legal scholars and authorities developed and discussed broad legal principles and applied them to ever-changing circumstances."

−2

BolleBozeBeer t1_j75j0j3 wrote

Ofcourse any kind of law is something we ourselves create.

Deconstruct this universe to atoms and sift those atoms through the finest sift.

Show me now the atom that is supposed to represent justice or equality.

Its our fantasy that makes these things real.

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contractualist OP t1_j76lne5 wrote

This article addresses the fact that there are moral laws and natural rights, as in reference to the social contract. Not all ethics is naturalistic. This substack makes the case for ethical non-naturalism here. To provide an analogy, its more like math than science.

1

BolleBozeBeer t1_j76o3ft wrote

Its still all just make believe.

We assume and think and take for granted, there is no universal law that says this or that when it comes to existence.

4

Ibicnic t1_j76jdw6 wrote

George Carlin pretty well settled this. We have no rights, only privileges. They are given to us by our government, and they will be taken away any time it sees fit. Source, 1942 we sent japanese Americans to internment camps, and before that we'd throw anyone in jail if we thought they liked communism.

They government is under no obligation to uphold their end of this contract, and you should feel lucky you were born in a country that will mostly allow you to have your privilege

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contractualist OP t1_j76mnk2 wrote

This argument is discussed in the piece and rejected.

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VitriolicViolet t1_j792w9c wrote

poorly.

rights and morals are determined by popularity and force (pretty much all of history stands as evidence, you necessarily claim morals and rights are objective yet have not proven it at all)

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contractualist OP t1_j7bj0tj wrote

This is moral relativism that this substack addresses and refutes. Right and wrong mean something. And natural rights derive from this objective ethics.

0

BrunodoAcre t1_j77aag1 wrote

The same bullshit from 17th century. Must preserve the capitalism from the bourgeois own theory

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[deleted] t1_j75a5hm wrote

[removed]

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BernardJOrtcutt t1_j75t0xx wrote

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[deleted] t1_j75cijy wrote

[removed]

−3

VoxVocisCausa t1_j76prbd wrote

NAP is a philosophical trap. In its very conception it's just a simplistic defense of systemic power structures. Also I think it's pretty obvious that Rothbard's rejection of defamation laws was based in his (often vocal) animosity towards black people and I don't think you can discuss his contributions to philosophy without an in depth discussion on white supremacy.

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Smallpaul t1_j76r40r wrote

I agree with every individual sentence you say, but in a philosophy subreddit I am queasy about saying we can only evaluate an idea by looking at where the idea came from.

These are two separate issues. You could demolish the idea intellectually and then say “and in case you wonder why such a weak idea was proposed, here is the answer.” But going directly to the ad hominem is sus.

And yes I agree that the NAP is incredibly weak, because it depends on a skewed definition of “aggression” which privileges the rich and makes poor people simply trying to stay alive “aggressors.”

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VoxVocisCausa t1_j76vkov wrote

It's important to examine ideas on their own merit and within a vacuum. But it's also important to acknowledge that we carry our own biases and perspectives into our examination of these ideas and to consider why these ideas and thinkers are popular enough that we're talking about them now. Also if we're going to use these ideas as a basis to comment on public policy we need to examine them within the context under which they're being applied. If we want to place Rothbard's ideas within the context they were written we need to consider that on this topic he's writing against a backdrop of the Civil Rights Movement and that while his ideas are often used by Libertarians as a defense of individual rights Rothbard's conception of individual rights was influenced by who he considered worthy. I am not necessarily criticizing OP for referencing Rothbard, who was a prolific and influential writer, but at the same time in the context of amateur discussions of philosophy on this subreddit I don't think it's necessarily out of line to point out the nature of the non-academic organizations who have made his papers available online.

−2

contractualist OP t1_j76qtxz wrote

Thank you for reading the piece! I'll look more into Rothbard's views on the topic. I just wanted to address one of his rights-based arguments to show how the BRA can lead us down the wrong path.

2

contractualist OP t1_j747n8x wrote

Summary: What are rights? They are entitlements paired with duties. But how can these rights be practically specified in the real world? How should we prioritize rights against one another? And where do these rights come from? Traditional libertarian rights theories fail to answer these questions of specification, prioritization, and genealogy. But a social contract analysis does.

I'd appreciate any feedback and criticism on this theory of rights so I can develop it further. I'd be happy to address any questions.

1

doireallyneedone11 t1_j74znep wrote

Aren't rights simply social constructs, just as true as morality and religion?

Yeah, I do get their (all of them) practical importance though.

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contractualist OP t1_j76o2i1 wrote

They are constructed in the sense that they derive from the hypothetical social contract, where free people accept certain reasonable non-rejectable principles (as described here). All of ethics is constructed in this metaphysical sense.

Yet rights exist in that we have certain rights that can be violated, as in reference to the social contract. The piece discusses this in the last section.

1

Philosopher83 t1_j75r9wa wrote

My Opinion: The ordering tendency or principle of the universe, historically referred to with concepts like "The Logos" refers to the observed fact of order, diversity, and complexity of extant phenomena. This ordering principle which subsumes the myriad conventions for describing the known universe is the foundation of how we exist since we are a result of the ordering process through which the tendency or principle acts/works. Evolution is the contemporary, and epistemologically, greatest form of comprehending this ordering principle / process.

Rights come from evolution in and through the emergent faculties which resulted from it. We have the conventions of rights because we evolved to be conceptual beings with animal needs. We are also social and political beings as a result of our evolutionary historicity and thus we relate with one another in a manner consistent with how these evolved predispositions are consistent with the tendency. The "fitness" of a convention of rights is mostly based in how rational they are (for the sake of justifying agreement), and how well the contribute to the survival of individuals/the group. Put simply, all justified rights are ideally predicated in terms of how they promote the essential basis of our physical and metaphysical existence and the pluralism implied by moral equality - Everything else is just wishful thinking (a.k.a limited justification) and/or the arbitrary/non-necessary imposition of such thoughts on the self-determination of others ( aka the imperfect elements within existing conventions).

​

property rights are a convention born out of value production and retention. We live in the world producing things, we use money as a basis for value representation and exchange, and we are incentivized by the relationship we have with the various things which are produced - particularly food, shelter, heat and water (so we dont die). without property rights to reasonably insure that we have consistent access to these things, we probably wouldnt cooperate well as a species and many people would not survive. Property rights can exist in many forms, but they exist in principle for survival even though they are social conventions.

Most justified rights exist for survival whether or not this is how they are predicated within the various conventions. But many rights are justified because they contribute to making a variety of things work better - the other side of the justification equation.

​

TL;DR - although I agree that rights are not naturally emergent in the typical way in which they are, and have historically been, described, this article seems predicated in an over-priority of political buzzwords, particularly US culture and politics with the term 'freedom' - a broadly used, but not well defined term to describe a person's right to self determination. linked articles seemed to be predicated in similar conventional terms which I find too inaccurate and unoriginal for my tastes as a lover of wisdom. I do, however, agree with the aspect of this project which emphasizes what was described as the need for specification, prioritization, and geneology. Traditional theories do not well address these. I also agreed in principle with some of the interpretations.

I personally think we need to start with the big bang and work forward but that is too much to write out in detail here

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contractualist OP t1_j76l55c wrote

I address what I mean by freedom here and here. They were linked in the article as well. If you find anything specifically inaccurate or something that I can clarify, I'd be happy to address it.

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Philosopher83 t1_j7alkgj wrote

this part (italic quote below) (from the first link) did not seem consistent (but I might be splitting hairs) - the second element of it does not seem to follow from the first part. it is too much of a physical to metaphysical jump so the logic doesn't translate well. I don't think it makes sense to suggest that a lack of sensation of free will means that we do not indeed have it, and that we cannot be held responsible. Many people often feel/think that they have less choice or no choice when there is often always a choice - the perception doesn't always correspond with the reality. The definition of agency freedom probably needs to be less constricted. I would suggest rewriting it, considering the logic of the sentence - i.e. it doesn't ring as valid / the logic seems off; you didn't mean it ironically correct? I think it stems from the definition - the meaning of the word 'agency' transcends a persons feeling/sensation. I believe agency has more to do with capacity to act and responsibility for such action - the whole ought implies can discussion in ethics.

"For example, we say that a chair exists because we perceive a chair to exist. We don’t call a chair “something that causes the perception of a chair, but which objectively we cannot call a chair since its existence as such is subject to our perceptions of it.” Instead, we call it a chair.

The same goes for free will. If we do not have the sensation of free will, then we don’t have free will and, therefore, can’t be held responsible."

I think the whole dynamic occurs on a slightly more complex level than this link describes. or maybe I just come at it from a different interpretive priority - I do think we are sort of on the same page in a variety of ways. But, the factors that contribute to behavior are subconscious and conscious so I don't see freedom as the ideal term to use - i see freedom as an overused concept in philosophy, particularly American philosophy. I am unsure how to accurately describe the distinction between the linguistic functions of the terms other than to say that I prefer the term sovereignty as an existentially derived primary right rather than freedom as some sense, quality, or capacity that someone possesses. I am more interested in the primordial existential state of being and how this translates to higher-order ontological principles as axiomatic to normative and political discourse - i.e. how we arrive at the higher-order principle and then see how this relates to our right to self determination and ethics/morality. I did appreciate how the phrase higher-order principles was used, but without a stated basis for this/these principles how can it be objective? The project of objectivity in morality and ethics seems like a faulty way of thinking to me - I ontologically categorize ethics and morality as subjective not objective. I think many people want to base ethics and morality on objectivity because of the concrete priority humans have. I see this as more of a will to power type approach, rather than seeking the necessary relational approach implied by the metaphysical category of being.

it did occur to me that you could be using the term objective in the sense of not being biased - i was using it here to refer to the correspondence our framing has with objective, concrete tendency.

​

​

In the second link I wasn't sure I agreed in part because of definitions and tracking meaning and interpretive priority, but I thought it might be good to suggest that It might bare more fruit to reference and predicate the free will/determinism debate as more spectral rather than as dichotomy. For example, we do have free will in certain ways, but we also have limits to this, which might be considered deterministic. if you think about the it from subconscious to conscious there isn't really a hard line - sometimes we are explicitly aware and other times we are on autopilot - it isn't an either/or proposition. Free will and determinism occur simultaneously at different thresholds of conscious experience.

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contractualist OP t1_j7bh56n wrote

There is a lot here that id be happy to address. Feel free to DM me if you’re interested.

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1

Due_Example5177 t1_j76jlwp wrote

The problem with positing that rights come from the State, is that any reasonable person would concede that the State can violate rights, a’la Nazi Germany. If rights come from the State, that would not be possible. Thus, rights must precede the State.

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jayz0ned t1_j77x4sj wrote

Internationalism has made it so that rights can now supersede the State (due to bodies such as the UN making agreements between all nations) but they originally came into existence from the State.

When we were hunter gatherers, we had no rights apart from what our social group/village allowed us to have. When serfdom existed, serfs were granted rights by their lords in exchange for their servitude. When liberal democracy started, we were granted rights by the state in exchange for the responsibilities of living in a society.

Now that countries hold each other accountable, some rights are given to all of humanity regardless of nationality. Prior to this internationalism, a state couldn't violate a right, unless it was a right they previously gave to subjects and then revoked.

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Due_Example5177 t1_j77xdn0 wrote

I’ll categorically reject that notion. We recognized rights before the city-State emerged.

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jayz0ned t1_j780lbh wrote

Some rights could have existed but we are talking about pre-history, so how society functioned then is not entirely known. And their conception of "rights" may be different to how we consider them now.

Rights need recognition (either explicit or implicit) by whatever society they are a part of, whether that is a hunter gatherer society or a modern state. We now have a society which is so complex that it encompasses the entire world and is why groups of people can violate rights, even if they personally never recognized that right.

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Due_Example5177 t1_j7874ob wrote

I’d argue that rights do NOT need recognition to exist. Take the Halocaust, for example. Few people would argue that the rights of the Jews and others targeted and systemically slaughtered were not violated, despite their rights to life not being recognized by the State. Those who would, we generally ostracize. Or take slavery, same thing there. That, to me, clearly and demonstrably disproves your notion that rights have to be recognized to exist. They’re therefore independent of recognition and exist separately from the State. Surely you’re not arguing that slavery and the Halocaust did not violate people’s rights? Of course, I’m sure you’re not. But that’s the logical conclusion of your argument, and we must follow amsuch arguments to their logical conclusions to test their validity. Having done so, I would hold that argument as clearly invalid. No, rights must be more primal than that. I won’t argue that people will not suffer the violation of their rights out of fear of stepping out of line of the masses, or some such phenomena, of course. But hell, homosexuality was illegal in many parts of America until 2003, are we going to seriously say that I had no right to exist until then? Of course not-that’s absolutely absurd.

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nateatenate t1_j76m4lu wrote

The problem is that there are no natural non rights yet human will creates suffering at the expense of others rights if we don’t out right define some of those rights

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duarchie t1_j76slgh wrote

Also every human has duties

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YawnTractor_1756 t1_j7724jc wrote

>I’ll have to sound like a broken record, but rights derive from reason.

Does not really sound like an explanation, because everything a person does is derived from reason (rational or irrational), rights included, which is pretty obvious to anyone who spent a minute thinking about it.

What the whole fuss is about is what right are "real" rights, and no amount of "reasoning" will resolve it, because there is no 'right' of 'wrong' rights.

Rights in society emerge from many people trying to impose those universal rules they believe in on others.

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yyzjertl t1_j77s289 wrote

This article seems quite unfair to the position, which it calls the "Brute Rights Assumption," that the "genealogy problem" isn't worth addressing. It does so by arguing against a weak Libertarian position. But that doesn't establish the claim that "genealogy problem" is important at all or is worth addressing as the first of the three problems. Instead, it seems to me that this "genealogy problem" is one of those things about which Wittgenstein famously said "Whereof one cannot speak, thereof one must be silent." Any attempted investigation of the actual nature or source of natural rights that tries to reduce them to language and rationality will inevitably cheapen them—and should be avoided.

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token-black-dude t1_j78k2vw wrote

It's pretty annoying, that the word "rights" is used both to signify legal, practically existing rights and abstract, fictional "natural rights". Those two concepts are not closely related, and people using them interchangeably only causes confusion

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Rvkm t1_j78p143 wrote

The people who are alive negotiate and decide what rights are and who receives them. How is that complicated.

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LazarusCheez t1_j78t9o0 wrote

Can you provide some kind of proof that rights derive from reason?

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drblackdahlia t1_j74grfg wrote

Hello. I think a dog has the natural right to defend themselves. Would this require a discussion on biological language? For example, if everything in the natural world is by default, self serving and trying to survive against anything that can threaten their life, does that imply everyone has natural rights if they are a living being? I suppose the tangent of owning a firearm is not, by any means, a natural right. I think. If this is true, would that imply we are slaves to nature and the rest of our biological processes as we continue to live? Forget Locke’s view, I would like to get to the bottom of this because this is the perfect time for this dialogue to gain attention.

Questions:

  1. Is there a gap in understanding the actual natural right and the right that cannot literally be taken?
  2. I can take someone’s property (Locke), but why does he claim it’s inalienable right?
  3. I want to be on the same page as everyone as far as vocabulary is concerned, so, do we use inalienable rights or natural rights?
  4. Prior to the Enlightenment period, who decided/managed the hierarchy of natural rights.
  5. Who’s rights were more important?
  6. Does this shift your view when this conversation is later considered in (let’s say) a political issue?
  7. Are we obligated, by default, to allow everyone to enjoy their natural rights?
  8. What happens when natural rights conflict? I have a lot more questions but I’m sure you would want to sleep soon. Lol.
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locri t1_j74hbbl wrote

> 3. I want to be on the same page as everyone as far as vocabulary is concerned, so, do we use inalienable rights or natural rights?

I'd use them interchangeably and get annoyed and yell semantics if someone disagrees. I know it's fun to make philosophy difficult but let's at least make the words simple?

Also, I might post back later and answer some of those questions as an exercise.

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contractualist OP t1_j74k1eu wrote

  1. I argue that natural law is based on social contract theory and those rights would have to be within the powers of one's freedom
  2. I wouldn't claim its an unalienable right (we allow government takings and adverse possession). Property rights require specification and prioritization, which social contract theory specifies.
  3. There is no consensus that I'm aware of. Inalienable rights is misleading, since rights require specification and are subject to reasonable restrictions. They aren't trumps according to my conception of them. I use natural rights.
  4. In Europe, before the enlightenment, natural law theory was based on divine providence, so god.
  5. It may have depended more on power than reason, so the most powerful.
  6. No, this is actual the strengths of contractualism/social contract theory. It can explain moral obligations and political legitimacy.
  7. Yes, since rights implies duties.
  8. Then reason must figure out an ordering of rights. This ordering may be universal (the social contract stage), based on national values (the political constitution stage) or based on the applicable law (the formal law creation stage).
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Dumguy1214 t1_j74nnrx wrote

I am the mountain, I am the root, the source

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Faust_8 t1_j76ela8 wrote

Whenever I see “natural law” I can only think about the people who feebly try to argue that, for example, it’s fine for a man to kiss a woman but a man kissing a man is now—somehow—violating natural law.

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LargeWeinerDog t1_j74fn8p wrote

In order to live, we need to breathe. So we have the right to breathe anywhere, anytime, and anyway we want. So we have a duty to make sure the air is clean and safe to breathe. But corporations don't fullfil that duty fully. This also applies to water and food and shelter. Corporations screw people in all these areas. We have the right to do something about it but if you do something to drastic other than voting and protesting (which obviously doesn't work or works wayyyy to slowly), than you get labeled as an environmental terrorist or something along those lines.

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BwanaAzungu t1_j75qv9g wrote

>In order to live, we need to breathe. So we have the right to breathe anywhere, anytime, and anyway we want.

The ocean would like a word.

Also Pompeii.

People die of suffocation all the time.

If these are "natural rights", then why doesn't nature respect them?

If nature doesn't respect them, then how are they "natural rights"?

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FinancialDesign2 t1_j75spez wrote

I agree with what you’re saying. Most people who make arguments about natural rights have not clearly defined what a right even is. Most take it to mean this right which is conferred to you by the laws of nature, or of some spiritual or natural moral obligation that is correct just because the morality of the universe deems it so. It’s a self referencing argument that has no basis. It’s true because it is.

The only logically consistent way you can define a right is that which is based on what you personally value. A personal value is an axiom because it is a self evident phenomenon, and natural rights are corollaries that stem from that axiom. As a social species, we value certain things such as cooperation, compassion, and mutually beneficial behaviors because that is what we evolved to do. This is why people generally agree on what a right should be but aren’t able to describe a logically consistent basis for why they feel that way. They are afraid to admit their values have no logical basis outside of biology.

Many other species of animals don’t have the same values as us. Many female spiders will cannibalize their mates after breeding. Hyenas will brutally murder their prey. Lions will murder the offspring of their competitors. We would say that no human has the right to act this way, but why do we then apply a different standard to animals? They certainly don’t feel guilt about their ways. It is because their values are different from ours. This also why some will disagree on whether or not a particular “right” should even exist in the first place. Should I have a right to own a gun? What about a tank? What about a nuclear bomb? At what point does owning an increasingly deadly weapon no longer become a right? The answer depends entirely on your values and what you deem appropriate. So it is with rights themselves.

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nightraven900 t1_j76fpxp wrote

Another logically consistent way you can define a right is that a right is something a person has intrinsically. Something they are born with and that cant be taken away in a vacuum. So something like the right to say what ever you want would be consistent in that as in a vacuum no one would be able to stop you from saying certain things. A right to weapons can be seen as the adaptation of the natural right a person has to protect themselves via what ever means they see fit. Its just been adapted to fit a society and the technology of modern times.

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Gooberpf t1_j77f9cl wrote

No human has ever or will ever exist in a vacuum. The tabula rasa foundational approach to ethics is fatally flawed, in that these presuppositions of "well if I were a singular person I would want XYZ" are 1. skewed by the value system you actually developed by whatever point in your life you're currently at and 2. literal impossibilities and not only do not but cannot reflect humanity.

Every person at minimum has one parent, and humans evolved to exist in communal groups. Any approach to ethics that starts with "in a vacuum" and ignores the simple fact that all persons have social connections from the instant they're born is starting from the wrong place.

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nightraven900 t1_j77vjlw wrote

In a vacuum more so means not in collaboration with other humans ie not part of a society or family which has happened very frequently. And while yes currently people do not live in a vacuum it is a very good starting point as humans are naturally selfish. Thus why I said those rights are adapted to fit society and technology levels. Rights like certain personal freedoms.

People arent always going have parent and it is still possible for a person to become completely isolated from other people even in first world countries.

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FinancialDesign2 t1_j784enc wrote

> And while yes currently people do not live in a vacuum it is a very good starting point as humans are naturally selfish.

Humans are not naturally selfish. Snakes are naturally selfish. Most reptiles are naturally selfish. Humans are intrinsically social animals that rely on group coherence to survive. If humans were naturally selfish then basically all of society would not exist. American culture may reward selfishness, but that does not mean that we are naturally so.

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nightraven900 t1_j78ibpc wrote

I think you are confusing social with generous. It is the goal of every person to focus on themselves more than others as it should be. Society exist because it is benificial for individuals to participate with each other to benifit themselves. They dont participate for altruistic reasons, they are being rewarded for their participation.

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Gooberpf t1_j783g2i wrote

Imagine that honeybees had philosophers and ethicists. Would it make sense for a worker bee philosopher to start her examination of morality based on herself and herself alone? Her whole concept of survival is intrinsically dependent on the queen and on other workers; she also can't breed. Before even discussing her concept of ethics, all of her core values are inseparable from her position in her hive society.

I'm not even proposing moral relativism here, I'm saying that any human conception of morality is inextricably connected to humans as social creatures. Even a self-centered individual has to bear that in mind as well - if "building a legacy" is a valuable goal to some specific, fully selfish individual, it's important to note that there's no such thing as a legacy without other members of society to experience or remember it into the future.

Assumptions about philosophy that start and end with the individual consciousness are IMO not "more rational" but instead something inhuman. How can a fully isolated human even be considered the same kind of existence as someone in a collective?

This is an aspect of "natural law" and "social contract" discussions that I think gets buried when people start focusing on individual positive/negative rights. If you're the only conscious individual around, there is no value in a concept of "rights" to begin with - a "right" only even has meaning when it affects another conscious being. Conjuring up some idea of "rights" one has when fully isolated and then applying that as a foundation for rules in a group is nonsensical - a fully isolated human could never have the language to conceive of "rights" (or even language at all).

Accordingly, conceptualizing what, if any, natural rights exist necessarily must begin with people in a group, not in isolation. Putting a human in a vacuum and then considering how they would behave at that point in a thought experiment is creating a non-human and then trying to give it the same label.

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FinancialDesign2 t1_j77clx5 wrote

The problem with that argument is that it doesn’t account for the fact that there are differences in opinions on what rights even are. If rights simply existed in a cosmological sense then there should be concrete ways to prove that one right exists while another doesn’t. If it’s just “something you have” without further explanation, then the assertions you make about rights have no reason behind them. It’s just declaring by fiat that a right exists, without providing any argument for why it exists. Thus it’s an argument from opinion, not an argument from evidence. The argument is literally “it exists because it exists” which is woefully inadequate.

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nightraven900 t1_j77yx8f wrote

Rights may not be concrete but the argument isn't about about the REASON rights exist. The argument is about what they are and where they come from. And my example is a common view that is held as to the nature of certain rights that people believe are fundamental and how said rights are decided upon.

As for the REASON rights exist well... There is no reason, that's like asking the reason why gravity exist or the reason natural laws exist or reason people exist. The answer quite literally is just because they do. The reason is irrelevant. That's why this particular definition of a right is so wide spread. Any reason the right has to existing is purely philosophical and doesnt hold weight in the real world.

I was talking about these types of rights from the logical consistency standpoint. Said consistency is what often draws people to this definition of rights most often. It provides a logically consistent answer for what rights are and where they come from as you where critiquing rights not being logically consistent. If someone disagrees that these things should be rights then that's a matter of opinion but it doesn't change their logical consistency.

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FinancialDesign2 t1_j7841t0 wrote

> the argument isn't about about the REASON rights exist. The argument is about what they are and where they come from.

Tomato, tomahto. An argument about where rights come from is intrinsically an argument about why they exist. The definition of a right you're positing is that it's "something a person has intrinsically". While that may make your arguments that follow from that presupposition logically consistent, the presupposition itself has no merit, and therefore all of the arguments that follow from that definition rely on an unfounded assertion.

> As for the REASON rights exist well... There is no reason, that's like asking the reason why gravity exist or the reason natural laws exist or reason people exist. The answer quite literally is just because they do.

That's simply not true. You can look to the morality that other species have and you realize that what a particular animal deems as "moral" or not (which may stem from whatever their sense of a "right" is) relies entirely on the social structure of that animal, e.g. its sense of fairness, compassion, empathy, theory of mind.

> I was talking about these types of rights from the logical consistency standpoint. Said consistency is what often draws people to this definition of rights most often.

Fair point. However in my view, an argument's conclusions have no merits if the axiom itself is bad. Subscribing to an axiom because it gives you nice logical properties is a basically meaningless way to discover what our rights should be. My argument is that the entire position is flawed and anyone who uses the argument that rights exist because they're intrinsic are starting from a weak position, and thus all the conclusions that follow are weak. Using the logical consistency of the argument as a reason for using the original axiom is totally, fundamentally flawed because corollaries cannot be used to assert the axiom is true (it is a self-referencing logical loop). Using "intrinsic rights" as an argument means there is zero room for debate as everyone will then claim that their rights are true because they said so.

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[deleted] t1_j74vehy wrote

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Philosopher83 t1_j75ncwd wrote

The 'law' of gravity, simplified, is a description of the relationship between the masses of particles/objects and is rightly classified as a component of physics / physical ontology. Rights, and normativity broadly, belongs to the category of metaphysical ontology - there is a relationship between the physical and metaphysical but this relationship needs to be properly explained in a way which is compatible with the generally agreed upon conventions, generally divided by the terms 'science' and 'non-science'

I dont know what you mean when you say that "we have a right to feel grounded." to me feeling grounded equates with an emotional sense of stability related to one's physical or social place in the world. I agree that this as an ideal way of being, but I struggle to see how we could use a non-primary emotion as the basis for any legal convention of rights in and of itself.

For me, I attempt to connect the metaphysics of ideas and feelings (things that exist dependently on a subjective mind) to the physics of the universe in which subjectivity arose. To do so, I use the concept of evolution, since what we are is a result of the specific evolutionary steps our species took to get to the present state of things.

Human beings are animals, in principle just like any other, the majority of us seeking food, water, thermal regulation, and shelter, and we also embody fight or flight tendencies and the tendency to recapitulate through sexual embodiment and activities like dating and pair bonding. From an evolutionary perspective you can tie survival tendencies to the physical and, in doing so, concepts related to survival are then bridged and can serve as the basis for normative conventions.

However, there is more than survival. We often seek to improve our existence and so there needs to be a secondary basis since normativity covers both the survival and improvement aspects of living.

I created a system, feel free to reach out if you are curious :)

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nightraven900 t1_j75ap0j wrote

The right to feel any way you want I dont think is the same as having something given to you that would make you feel a certain way. For example you have the right to feel happy, but not the right to be given happiness. Before intellectualization must come survival. So i'd think the inherent rights people have should be focused on first. The rights people are born with that cant be given or taken away in a vacuum.

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Diogenic_Seer t1_j75flwq wrote

I’m not taking about the right to be happy.

The problem is that those of wealthier upbringing get to think about survival less than poor people. It gives an advantage.

It’s actually about trying to find ways to reward people with high mental fortitude, but their poverty keeps them from really gaining the momentum to intellectualize their minds.

The goal is to see the wealthy and weak willed displaced from power

Of course intellectualization comes after survival. That’s my point!

“I am, somehow, less interested in the weight and convolutions of Einstein’s brain than in the near certainty that people of equal talent have lived and died in cotton fields and sweatshops.”- Stephen Jay Gould

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nightraven900 t1_j75fzwa wrote

Isnt it the logical conclusion that those who have become so wealthy are wealthy because they were competent enough to forever escape the need for basic survival? They are the ones with high mental fortitude and they used that to gain their wealth.

And that those who are poor are that way because they lack the mental fortitude that is required to climb through the ranks of society?

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[deleted] t1_j75kvqd wrote

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nightraven900 t1_j75ljrd wrote

Well yes you would expect the people that are born into wealth to become wealthy more frequently than those who arent born into wealth. Life isnt going to be statistically perfectly balanced so you are always going to get anomalies and outliers. You could even attribute that to americas unique culture when it comes to people being able to become wealthy.

Of course a person in power doesn't ALWAYS "deserve" to have said power but most of the time they are, at least in western countries. Who are we to say who doesnt and doesnt deserve what anyway.

Logically just having intelligence isnt going to guarantee success. But it does already greatly increase the chances of success and is large reason why a majority of the rich have the positions they do.

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[deleted] t1_j75zc6d wrote

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nightraven900 t1_j76euyb wrote

There forever and always has been and will be power imbalances. That's how power works, not everyone can or is even suppose to have the same amount of power. And its the nature of power to accumulate.

The US does indeed have a unique culture of people becoming wealthy. It allows for people to keep more of the wealth they earned compared to other countries. Most millionaires in the US aren't born into wealth, they earn it.

Class mobility in socialist countries is a bit over stated as there is already a smaller class disparity in those countries in the first place so of course it would be easier for people to raise class status when the gap isn't as large. In the US you still have class mobility but it happens in a much wider range compared to other countries. IE the potency of the class mobility in the US is much higher. Not to mention the US having more freedoms than those other countries comes with the downside of letting people make the wrong decisions.

Darwin is referring to biology were as we are referring to society. Both have separate rules as to how success is gained. But even by evolutionary standards wealthy people did adapt to some situation they found themselves in and became wealthy as a result of said adaptation. So wealthy that they no longer need to worry about adaptation ever again and in alot of cases neither do their children, thats what success is.

Forced redistribution of resources has never worked out well. I dont think its in peoples best interest to attempt to topple a stable societal structure that has provided all the resources we have in our modern world. Its like saying someone deserves to get something stolen because they were tempting a thief. Its the thief that is the problem, not the person who get stolen from.

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[deleted] t1_j76k1yx wrote

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nightraven900 t1_j77ujre wrote

They are related yes but are not the same thing. So their concepts dont exactly transfer over. But still i even said that by evolutionarily standards that wealthy people have adapted and succeeded.

Society isn't a scale, its not mean to be perfectly balanced ESPECIALLY not when there is a focused goal to achieve some kind of forced balance, that often leads to societal catastrophe. Thats what the purpose of capitalism is, the ability for a economy to correct itself with extremely limited intervention.

Wealthy people very often can afford to forget about adaptation after they have lost their mo at. If you see that as a bubble that is about to pop then there shouldn't be any issue then since the bubble popping would be the problem fixing itself.

People have large amounts of wealth currently have a much different position than something like a monarchy did in the past. They dont control the government and there isn't just some singular target or family. Its just a bunch of individuals many of whom people dont even know the names of.

No one is forced to follow capitalism, if they want to they can move to one of the non capitalist countries and try any number of alternative economic systems that they want. Socialism may not be as extreme in its forced redistribution compared to its contemporaries but it is still forced. And in a country that values individual liberty above all else those two are not a good fit. Natural laws are hard set into reality, and even those we be can occasionally bend, man made laws hold even less meaning than them. The goal is less constraints of freedom, not more.

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EclipseGames t1_j75l8u4 wrote

That might be the case if levels of wealth weren't inherited. In most cases it seems that luck is the main factor at play, instead of mental fortitude or any kind of competence. If you are born into wealth, survival is easy. If you are born into poverty, working just as hard as the born-rich will be unlikely to get you anywhere near as far

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nightraven900 t1_j75lrty wrote

Obviously if you are born wealthy you have an advantage but thats just it, its an advantage, not a gurentee. The same goes for someone being poor, just because they are at a disadvatage doesn't mean they wont find success. Luck is always a factor but the main factor still is competence.

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EclipseGames t1_j75m7vx wrote

There is a theoretical level of (dis)advantage that would deem (in)competence to be a very small factor in comparison. I believe this is the case for an extremely large number of people.

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nightraven900 t1_j75mzbq wrote

I dont think there is an level of disadvantage that can't be overcome with enough competence. If the disadvantage largely exceeds the competence then yes the naturally the competence makes up a smaller proportion of an individuals agency, but the opportunities still arise to take advantage of said small level of competence to SOME degree at least.

There are people whos disadvantages out way their competence but that doesn't mean they have no options at all. And id think its a very very small minority of people in the first place.

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